2013年6月28日星期五

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Exam Code: HP2-H21

Exam Name: HP (Technical Essentials of HP Workstations)

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NO.1 .How much memory can you install in an HP Z400 Workstation?
A. 8 GB
B. 12 GB
C. 16 GB
D. 24 GB
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the maximum number of displays that can be supported running 3D Graphics?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 10
Answer: A

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NO.3 How many DIMM slots are available in the HP Z400 Workstation?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 10
Answer: C

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NO.4 In a conversation with your customer, you talk about the DDR3 feature of the HP Z400 Workstation.
What are you discussing?
A. disk drives
B. display driver
C. memory
D. processors
Answer: A

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NO.5 How many IO cards requiring a Gen2 x 16 PCI slot can a customer install in an HP Z400 Workstation.?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP3-R95

Exam Name: HP (Servicing HP Networking Products )

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NO.1 Which switch series can function as a modular chassis or a fixed-form-factor stackable switch?
A. A5820 Switch Series
B. A7500 Switch Series
C. A9500 Switch Series
D. A12500 Switch Series
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of these switches support up to two interface modules? (Select two.)
A. A5820-14XG-SFP+
B. A5820-24XG-SFP+
C. A7502
D. A7503
E. A7503-S
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 Which feature is supported on all modular switches in this training.?
A. Redundant, hot-swappable power supplies
B. Redundant, hot-swappable fan trays
C. Redundant, hot-swappable management modules
D. Redundant, hot-swappable switch fabric modules
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-K31

Exam Name: HP (Technical Introduction to the HP Storage SMB Portfolio)

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NO.1 In which type of RAID is each disk paired with another specific disk?
A. RAID0
B. RAID1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 6
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is an advantage of SAS drives over SATA drives?
A. greater disk capacity
B. higher speed data transfers
C. lower cost per GB
D. hot-swap capability
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is an advantage of the HP LeftHand 4000 Virtual SAN Appliance?
A. SAN benefits without dedicated external storage
B. file store for unstructured data
C. command view administration
D. minimized failure domains
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which type of storage uses a host bus adapter (HBA) located in the host server typically with a Fibre
Channel interface?
A. internal
B. DAS
C. SAN
D. NAS
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which statement is true about HP Ultrium Tape Blades.?
A. They can be used with an HP SB40c Storage Blade and connected to the same server blade.
B. They are developed exclusively for HP BladeSystem c-Class enclosures.
C. They use TapeAssure for hardware data encryption.
D. They represent five generations of LTO tape blade technology
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is the function of HP StoreOnce Backup?
A. provides additional virtual devices and leverages existing EVA infrastructure
B. enables administrators to change backup software and monitoring policies
C. accelerates backup performance in complex SAN and iSCSI environments
D. increases the capacity and thus the complexity of a SAN environment
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which HP intellectual property innovations does StoreOnce deduplication software leverage? (Select
two.)
A. fine-grained, variable chunking
B. data sampling
C. policy enforcing
D. sparse indexing
E. locality optimizing
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 What is a logical unit number (LUN)?
A. a unique ID used to present a larger or smaller view of disk storage to the server
B. a command data block sent by an iSCSI initiator to a target
C. an algorithm that determines whether an I/O stream will benefit from caching
D. a collection of Fibre Channel adapters (FCAs) that resides in the same virtual server
Answer: A

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NO.9 DRAG DROP
Your customer has a tiered storage environment. Match each tier with the appropriate type of storage
media.
Drag the options on the right to match the choices on the left
Answer:

NO.10 Which type of disk drive provides the highest level of performance?
A. ISSD
B. IDE
C. SCSI
D. SATA
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which HP tape technology enables library-based encryption?
A. Ultrium 448
B. Super DLT II 600GB
C. Super DLT 320
D. LTO-5 Ultrium 3280
Answer: D

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NO.12 What is the correct term for information typically found in a database?
A. metadata
B. hypermedia
C. structured content
D. unstructured content
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which feature, included in HP StoreOnce Backup, eliminates redundant data during backups by saving
a single copy of identical data and replacing any further instances with pointers back to that copy?
A. deduplication
B. dynamic allocation
C. dynamic reallocation
D. low-bandwidth replication
Answer: A

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NO.14 The HP LeftHand 4800 Storage for HP Bladesystem solves the performance issue often associated
with virtualized server environments. What is the main reason for this performance improvement?
A. dense spindle count
B. immediate access with Virtually Instantaneous Snapclones
C. effective utilization of storage space with Virtually Capacity-Free Snapshots
D. redundant storage sets
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which type of storage includes an internal RAID controller?
A. NAS
B. SAN
C. DAS
D. FibreChannel
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-H01

Exam Name: HP (Servicing HP Desktops and Workstations)

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NO.1 What is the main function of a DisplayPort to DVI Adapter?
A. to convert the output of a graphics card from VGA to DVI
B. to convert DisplayPort output to DVI for use with a Single Link DVI-D monitor
C. to enable 3D graphics to be rendered more clearly on a CRT monitor
D. to enable S-Video support in order to view HDTV content
Answer: D

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NO.2 What does HP QuickLook enable you to do?
A. access your Outlook data even if your device is in hibernate mode or powered off
B. access HP technical data or support information on the Internet
C. view the contents of a system folder without opening that folder
D. view the complete system information relating to your notebook
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is a benefit of HP DieamColor technology?
A. It automatically locates and hides defective pixels by changing their color.
B. It allows the use of a digitizer for point-and-click display functionality.
C. It produces consistent color across digital devices and applications.
D. It adjusts the color of the display according to the external light sources.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the primary function of MXM graphics modules in portables?
A. provides the ability to use scalable link interface (SLI) graphic processors
B. allows the graphics processor to be easily upgraded
C. provides high-definition hardware support
D. allows an embedded video chipset installation
Answer: B

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NO.5 HOTSPOT
Click the part of the graphic that identifies the Mobile PCI eXpress Module (MXM) card.
Answer:

NO.6 Which HP product supports a RAID 5 configuration?
A. notebook
B. desktop workstation
C. slimline desktop
D. mobile workstation
Answer: B

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NO.7 The maximum amount of usable RAM in Microsoft Vista is limited by which factors? (Select two.)
A. processor manufacturer
B. SyStem chipset
C. operating system
D. memory drivers
E. hard drive capacity
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 Which range of colors does the HP DreamColor display?
A. more than 1 billion colors in a 30-bit. LED-backlit display
B. more than 10 billion colors in a 30-bit. LED-backlit display
C. up to 1 million colors in a 30-bit. LED-backlit display
D. up to 10 million colors in a 30-bit. LED-backlit display
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which HP product line is best suited for a customer who uses a manufacturing computer-aided design
program?
A. HP Tablet
B. HP TouchSmart PC
C. HP Mini Notebook
D. HP Personal Workstation
Answer: C

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NO.10 A monitor is moved to a new computer. Upon power-up the screen message Theft Mode Enabled
displays. How can you restore the monitor to normal operation.? (Select two.)
A. Obtain the master PIN from the system administrator.
B. Disable the Theft Mode in HP Display Utility.
C. Enter the PIN in HP Display Assistant Utility.
D. Return the monitor to original computer and disable Theft Mode.
E. Press and hold the reset button on the back of the monitor.
Answer: B,D

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NO.11 HP Disk Sanitizei (Shredder) is part of which HP security suite?
A. SecurityTools
B. ProtectTools
C. DefenclTools
D. SafeGuarclTools
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which HP option contains an integrated hard drive?
A. Mobile Expansion Unit (MEU)
B. 3-in-1 NAS Port Replicator
C. Simple Port Replicator
D. Advanced Port Replicator
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which function does the Wireless LAN 802.11 n standard provide?
A. uses the same antenna to receive and transmit simultaneously
B. operates in the 2.4GHz frequency range only
C. uses two or more transmitter and receiver antennas
D. provides more security features than 802.11
Answer: C

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NO.14 What is the difference between SATA and eSATA?
A. SATA has more drive options.
B. eSATA uses an external port.
C. SATA has lower power consumption.
D. eSATA uses a faster bus speed.
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which statement about SATA technology is correct?
A. SAS hard drives can be connected to a SATA controller.
B. SATA hard drives can be connected directly to a SCSI controller.
C. SATA hard drives can be connected to a SAS controller.
D. SATA hard drives can be installed in a daisy chain configuration.
Answer: C

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NO.16 What must you do to optimize the performance of a 64-bit processor?
A. Install 64-bit compatible RAM.
B. Enable bit control in the BIOS.
C. Use a 64-bit operating system.
D. Install faster system memory.
Answer: C

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NO.17 What is the difference between a frontside bus (FSB) and Intel QuickPath?
A. QuickPath connects the memory controller to the I/O controller; FSB connects the CPU to the chipset.
B. QuickPath is a peripheral data bus; FSB is a CPU data bus.
C. QuickPath is a graphics controller bus; FSB is a CPU data bus.
D. QuickPath provides faster CPU data transfer speeds than the FSB.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which statement is true about HP thin clients?
A. They run Linux operating systems only.
B. They have no system BIOS.
C. They use an embedded operating system.
D. They have no network functionality.
Answer: C

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NO.19 A customer complains that the HP QuickLook 2 feature is not working on their notebook running
Windows Vista. Which application must be installed to support this feature?
A. HP Assistant
B. Microsoft Aero
C. HP Help and Support
D. Microsoft Office
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which operating system is supported by HP on HP desktop PCs?
A. Ubuntu Linux
B. Windows Server 2008
C. Windows Vista
D. Windows 2000
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-M58

Exam Name: HP (HP Software Testing Foundation 11)

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NO.1 When is test said to be economical?
A. Each test should have a distinct objective, such as verifying a specific function or system requirement.
B. Test Plan A test must include only the necessary steps and fields that are needed for its purpose.
C. Each iteration of the test must execute consistently.
D. A test must be appropriate for its testers and its environment.
Answer: A

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NO.2 When using HP Sprinter, what enables the selection of rows of data to be sent automatically to
relevant locations in a form?
A. annotating a screen capture
B. data injection
C. macros
D. mirroring
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which defect status indicates that the defect has been resolved but it is pending approval by the
testing team?
A. New
B. Fixed
C. Reopen
D. Open
Answer: D

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NO.4 A test set folder contains tests that can be assigned to cycles in the Management module. What does
this association allow you to do? (Select three.)
A. Review the progress of the tests.
B. Determine the number of resolved and outstanding defects.
C. Enable test sets to be included in a baseline.
D. Determine the maximum number of test sets for a cycle.
E. Enhance reporting ability.
F. Review the responsible testers included in each cycle.
Answer: A,D,F

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NO.5 Which statement is true?
A. A release start date and end date must encompass the cycle start dates only.
B. Cycles may exist independent of one another.
C. Cycle dates cannot overlap with each other.
D. A release start date and end date must encompass the cycle end dates only.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which option from the Test Type drop down should you select to run an Astra Load Test?
A. LR-Scenario
B. ALT-Scenario
C. VAPI-XP-Test
D. QUICKTEST_TEST
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which Quality Center module manages libraries and baselines?
A. Baseline module
B. Management module
C. Librariesmodule
D. Requirement module
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is used to highlight problems in images attached to a step, run, actual result, or defect?
A. annotations
B. macros
C. smart defect
D. mirroring
Answer: A

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NO.9 The Traceability Matrix lists the number of relationships for each source requirement. Which type of
value in this matrix implies that the source requirement is not associated with enough requirements or
tests?
A. a high value
B. a low value
C. a negative value
D. a zero value
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which menu provides the Document Generator option?
A. Analysis
B. Report
C. Tools
D. Dashboard
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which ALM add-in provides a variety of tools to assist in the manual testing process?
A. Quality Center Connectivity
B. Quality Center System Test Remote Agent
C. Sprinter
D. ALM add-ins
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which module under Testing enables you to develop and manage tests in a hierarchical tree-structure?
A. Test Lab
B. Test Plan
C. Business Components
D. Test Resources
Answer: A

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NO.13 What does the Execution report list do.?
A. the test sets that appear in the Test Lab module, without listing their tests
B. the test instances with their testing status
C. the requirements in the Requirement module
D. the tests in the Test Plan module
Answer: B

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NO.14 What does this icon in the Requirements module represent?
A. Requirements: Attachments
B. Requirements: Requirement Details
C. Requirements: Select Columns
D. Requirements: Send by Email
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which value in the Compare Baseline tool indicates that there is a difference in the entity between the
baselines?
A. Added
B. Absent
C. Moved
D. Modified
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-N31

Exam Name: HP (Selling HP BSM Solutions)

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Exam Code: HP2-E57

Exam Name: HP (IT to Business Alignment - HP Always On Support Services)

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Exam Code: HP2-E56

Exam Name: HP (Selling HP SMB Solutions - Exam)

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NO.1 What is the primary purpose of the Partner Sales Advantage (PSA) tool?
A. to build and manage a list of prospective customers
B. to serve as a repository for strategic sales tools
C. to explore customers' business environments and top pain points
D. to compare similar products and identify the best fit based on customer needs
Answer: C

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NO.2 Your customer is launching a small business that is an independently managed subsidiary of a
large enterprise. Initially, there will be more than 50 workers who will need to stay connected.
Which networking solution should you recommend?
A. HP 1810 Switch Series
B. HP 1910 Switch Series
C. HP 2510 Switch Series
D. HP 2910 Switch Series
Answer: B

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NO.3 What are the best sources for finding information on HP client virtualization SMB solutions
and
reference architectures?
A. www.hp.com/go/cv, HP C3T Network Comparison Tool, HP PSA Tool
B. www.hp.com/go/cv. HP PSA Tool. HP CoffeeCoaching Channel
C. www.hp.com/go/cv. HP C3T Network Comparison Tool, HP CoffeeCoaching Channel
D. www.hp.com/go/cv, HP SMB Solutions Blog. HP CoffeeCoaching Channel
Answer: A

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NO.4 Why should a customer consider buying HP IP phones for their HP Lync deployment?
A. Their rich feature set includes hands-free audio quality.
B. Their LED indicators provide ease-of-use operation.
C. They are Lync-optimzed for seamless plug-and-play ability.
D. They are the only phones the solution supports.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which statement best describes HP VDI endpoint devices?
A. The only endpoint devices supported are personal systems sold by HP
B. HP recommends HP SmartZero and HP Flexible Thin Clients that come pre-installed with client
virtualization.
C. HP recommends HP SmartZero and HP Flexible Thin Clients on which users must install client
virtualization software.
D. HP endpoint devices meet more rigorous security requirements than many personally owned
devices
Answer: B

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NO.6 Your customer has started a new business and has six employees who will need to easily stay
connected. Which server and switch should you recommend?
A. HP ProLiant MicroServer 1P and HP 1810-24G v2 Switch
B. HP ProLiant ML310e Gen8 1P Performance Model and HP 1810-43G Switch
C. HP ProLiant ML350e 1P Performance Model and HP 1810-24G v2 Switch
D. HP ProLiant DL380p Gen8 2P High Performance Model and HP 1910-24G Switch
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is a key feature of HP Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) solutions?
A. According to industry analysts, client virtualization software created by HP is the forerunner in
the marketplace.
B. All hardware and client virtualization software solution components are built by HP for easy
integration, deployment, manageability, and supportability
C. Although HP VDI solutions are designed for enterprise customers, they can be easily adapted
to mid-sized businesses.
D. HP partners with leading client virtualization software partners to provide customers with a
choice in best-in-class solutions.
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the HP Just Right IT framework?
A. pay-per-use service that delivers the right mix of hosted resources as needed
B. a set of solutions to be customized based on unique customer needs
C. fixed bundle of HP products and services that are sized and priced for small businesses
D. range of support services sized and priced for small businesses
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is a typical customer objection to HP service support?
A. My staff has plenty of time to handle both IT and business issues.
B. My staff is knowledgeable and can handle most issues.
C. I do not need to shorten the time to ROI.
D. I am not concerned about protecting against future downtime.
Answer: B

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NO.10 How do customers benefit from client virtualization?
A. Client virtualization increases IT productivity by eliminating the need for IT to provide deskside
support.
B. Client virtualization delivers an all-or-none solution that completely eliminates the need for
organizations to refresh PC hardware.
C. Client virtualization allows business users a variety of devices to get their work done from
anywhere at any time.
D. Client virtualization provides a short-term solution for organizations that need to reduce
operating expenses.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HH0-440

Exam Name: Hitachi (Storage Architect - Performance and Virtualization)

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NO.1 A customer, which runs a large Web server farm as an Internet service and hosting provider, wants to
consolidate the data from all these servers from the internal server disks to an iSCSI SAN solution which
uses a Universal Storage Platform (USP) V as the storage system. The IO is generally random read in
small block size. Which two RAID Group configurations would you recommend for the USP V? (Choose
two.)
A. RAID1 2+2
B. RAID1 4+4 C. RAID5 7+1
D. RAID6 6+2
Answer: CD

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NO.2 A customer is using Hitachi Dynamic Provisioning (HDP) on a Universal Storage Platform (USP) V
and runs an Oracle database on HDP Volumes allocated to a HDP Pool. The customer is experiencing
unexpected growth of the database and a lack of capacity in the HDP Pool. What should be done?
A. Build a new HDP Pool using the same disk and RAID type and migrate the DP-Volumes to the new
pool.
B. Build a new HDP Pool using any disk and any RAID type and migrate the DP-Volumes to the new pool.
C. Extend the existing HDP Pool with Pool Volumes using the same RAID and disk type.
D. Extend the existing HDP Pool with Pool Volumes using any RAID and disk type.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which HDS product is used to define and report Logical Group configurations?
A. Hitachi Tuning Manager
B. Hitachi Device Manager
C. Hitachi Tiered Storage Manager
D. Hitachi Storage Services Manager
Answer: B

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NO.4 A Microsoft Exchange administrator team is responsible for managing five mailbox servers and
maintaining acceptable service level objectives for your organization's email users. Accordingly, they
want to setup Windows Performance Monitor to actively monitor the Exchange servers. Which
Performance Monitor counter should be monitored for the Exchange database LUNs?
A. disk write bytes/second
B. disk read bytes/second
C. IO delays per sec
D. average disk read latency (ms)
Answer: D

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NO.5 When planning for capacity growth and performance for a new application, which three metrics are
necessary to determine the required back-end storage configuration? (Choose three.)
A. anticipated read/write IOPS
B. cache read hit ratios
C. queue depths
D. transfer rates
E. IOPS per physical disk
Answer:ABE

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NO.6 A customer reports erratic occurrences of concurrent slow downs involving multiple servers directly
attached to a large enterprise storage system. Each server supports an independent application and uses
dedicated port processors and RAID Groups. Storage replication, thin provisioning, and external storage
are used. If this problem originates in the storage, what are the two most likely causes? (Choose two.)
A. highly concurrent PAIRCREATE
B. storage system microcode problem
C. high internal path utilization
D. high cache Write Pending
Answer:AD

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NO.7 When DB2 Deferred Write Threshold (DWT) is reached, high write activity occurs, this can degrade all
subsystems involved with the DB2 containers. Within the entire performance chain, which three
components are critical during these occurrences? (Choose three.)
A. host CPU
B. host memory
C. storage subsystem cache
D. storage subsystem front-end processors
E. storage subsystem disks
Answer: BCE

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NO.8 In IOSTAT, which two Solaris metrics are used to determine the average read block size to a device?
(Choose two.)
A. reads per second (r/s)
B. kilobytes read per second (kr/s)
C. block size (bs)
D. read block size (rbs)
Answer:AB

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NO.9 A customer runs two geographical dispersed data centers and plans to merge both data centers' SANs.
Which three should be considered when planning the ISL installation and configuration? (Choose three.)
A. distance
B. ISL trunk setup/configuration
C. estimated throughput
D. fabric trunk setup/configuration
E. buffer credits
Answer: ABC

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NO.10 Which VMware multi-pathing scheme should be used to avoid non-owning access with HDS modular
storage systems with multiple VMware servers?
A. Most Recently Used (MRU)
B. Fixed
C. Round-Robin
D. Extended Round-Robin
Answer: B

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NO.11 Click the Exhibit button.
Which three conditions are likely causes for the write pending rates illustrated in the exhibit? (Choose
three.)
A. insufficient cache
B. loss of redundancy in write cache
C. heavy random writes to RAID5
D. heavy random writes to SATA drives
E. failure to distribute workload among sufficient array groups
Answer: CDE

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NO.12 A customer reports OLTP database response times as measured by Oracle have tripled from 1 ms to 3
ms. Comprehensive data collection is present throughout the incident. Which three metrics are most
relevant? (Choose three.)
A. LDEV response time
B. LUN queue depth
C. port utilization (% Busy)
D. cache hit ratio
E. BED utilization
Answer: ACD

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NO.13 Which three statements are true regarding Hitachi storage configurations for Microsoft Exchange
Server? (Choose three.)
A. RAID6 is a recommended RAID level for the database RAID Groups.
B. RAID1+0 is a recommended RAID level for the database RAID Groups.
C. RAID5 is the recommended RAID level for the log RAID Groups..
D. LUN concatenation (LUSE) is not recommended.
E. VDEV striping is a recommended configuration for database RAID Groups.
Answer: BDE

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NO.14 Which three actions will help to reduce the level of Write Pending data in cache during periods of
intense random update processing? (Choose three.)
A. Switch to faster disk drives.
B. Migrate from RAID5 to RAID1.
C. Spread the load across more RAID Groups.
D. Spread the load across more ports.
E. Spread the load across more LUNs.
Answer: ABC

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NO.15 Performance monitor data indicates that CHP utilization may be causing a bottleneck in a Universal
Storage Platform (USP) series system during periods of intense processing. Which two actions should be
considered to increase IOPS during the bottleneck periods? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the paths using high-speed mode.
B. Spread the load across more CHP processors and paths.
C. Spread the load across more RAID Groups.
D. Spread the load across more LUNs.
Answer:AB

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NO.16 Which two Hitachi Professional Services are available for modular and enterprise performance
assessment and troubleshooting? (Choose two.)
A. Storage Platform Assessment (SPA)
B. Implementation Service for Hitachi Tuning Manager
C. Implementation Service for Hitachi Storage Services Manager Software
D. Tiered Storage Planning and Design Service
Answer:AB

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NO.17 Which two statements are true about the Hitachi Tuning Manager Agent for RAID Product Interval (PI)
record type? (Choose two.)
A. Performance data is collected by the Agent Collector at specified intervals and summarized for every
hour/day/week/month/year.
B. Configuration data is collected by the Agent Collector at specified intervals and summarized for every
hour/day/week/month/year.
C. Performance Reporter can directly access Product Interval records through Hitachi Tuning Manager.
D. Product Interval.
Answer:AC

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NO.18 Which three metrics aid in calculating how long a block of data remains available in cache after its last
access? (Choose three.)
A. IOPS rate into the cache partition or storage system
B. number of available cache segments
C. the cache hit rate
D. average response time
E. average LUN queue size
Answer: ABC

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NO.19 What happens when the Extended Round-Robin load balancing algorithm is used with an LDEV that
is executing only random type IOs?
A. Performance will be severely impacted.
B. Load balancing will be disabled for this LDEV.
C. Round-Robin will be used.
D. HGLAM will be notified of this inconsistency.
Answer: C

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NO.20 To eliminate disk related performance issues, which three Hitachi Tuning Manager reports would be
most useful for analyzing Microsoft 2007 Exchange Storage Group LUN activity? (Choose three.)
A. RAID Map reports
B. RAID Group Configuration reports
C. RAID Group Utilization reports
D. Logical Device Response Time reports
E. Exchange MAPI Connection reports
Answer: ACD

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Exam Code: HD0-300

Exam Name: HDI (Help Desk Manager)

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NO.1 What are three functions of an effective support organization in managing
unresolved support issues? (Choose three)
A. recording unresolved issues
B. resolving customer issues
C. escalating unresolved issues
D. monitoring unresolved issues
E. communicating the status of issues
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.2 What are three benefits of mentoring programs? (Choose three)
A. They help team members improve
B. They help retain personnel with optimal skills.
C. They allow team members potential growth opportunities.
D. They help team members develop strategic vision statements.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 Service Level Agreements document the level of service provided as well as the level
at which that service is provided by which two parties?
A. customer
B. stake holder
C. service provider
D. Help Desk manager
E. Service-level managers
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 Which three technologies enable Help Desks to achieve their performance goals?
(Choose three)
A. Automatic Call Distributor
B. Interactive Voice Response
C. Intra-monthly Monitoring System
D. Extra-diem Reporting Application
E. Customer Relationship Management
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.5 What are three ways to maintain a balanced and positive outlook when adapting to
new situations, priorities, or demands? (Choose three)
A. concentrate on common goals during times of disagreement
B. develop interests outside of work to provide a stress-free zone
C. identify trends in service, and then develop resources to meet those trends
D. create a personal network of advisors with whom you can share problems and
concerns.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.6 Which traits should a Help Desk manager look for an analyst to determine if the
analyst can effectively multitask?
A. handles stress and prioritize
B. takes the initiative and is creative
C. takes chances and switches topics
D. changes perspectives often and is self sufficient
Answer: A

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NO.7 An upcoming production rollout could heavily impact normal off-shifts. You decide
to move schedules to cover the upcoming increase in calls. After the staff expresses
their concerns about having to work the new shifts with little warning, you still
decide to implement your off-schedule shift change.
Which leadership trait does this show?
A. the ability to encourage team participation
B. the ability to discourage one-person domination
C. the ability to execute a plan despite adverse conditions
D. the ability to identify unpopular decisions as still necessary
Answer: D

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NO.8 What should be addressed in a support center's marketing plan?
A. the support center's budget requirements
B. the support center's staffing requirements
C. the support center's implementation timelines
D. the support center's role in the corporate vision
Answer: D

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NO.9 You want to be prepared for a potential decrease in workforce scheduling based on
a decrease in customer service requests. What are the three most likely reasons for a
reduction in call volume? (Choose three)
A. Customers are better trained
B. Customers are more experienced
C. Business functions are outsourced
D. System are more stable and mature.
E. Overall business/workforce is reduced.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.10 Which three metric calculations impact customer satisfaction? (Choose three)
A. Average Talk Time
B. Abandonment Rate
C. First Call Resolution Rate
D. Averaged Speed of Answer
E. Average After Call Work Time
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.11 Your Help Desk is 24x7 and covers support for many areas throughout the country.
An upcoming snow storm is expected to cause power outage.
What helps you prepare for the upcoming days?
A. call answer plans
B. contingency plans
C. UPS usage reports
D. Gap analysis reports
Answer: B

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NO.12 Organizational development needs are determined by which three methods?
(Choose three)
A. project analysis
B. position profiling
C. skill gap analysis
D. individual assessment
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.13 Your support organization has 20 frontline analysts. The Call Management System
produces performance reports that show the amount of time each analyst is on the
phone, performing wrap-up work, and not available. Reports also show the number
of calls taken and the average talk-time per agent.
Based on these reports, what should the manager do to improve the support
organization's performance?
A. publish trend reports for the group as a whole
B. publish a list of agents ranked by who has the most talk time.
C. Recognize and reward the individual who handles the most calls
D. Recognize and reward the individual who has the least :not available" time
Answer: A

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NO.14 Who is ultimately responsible for an employee's success or failure?
A. the employee
B. the employee's mentor
C. the employee's manager
D. the employee's team leader
Answer: A

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NO.15 A customer could not get through to a support representative when calling the Help
Desk in the morning. He had to call back later.
Which metric captures this situation?
A. Time in Queue
B. Abandonment Rate
C. Average Speed of Answer
D. First Call Resolution Rate
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which two service parameters are normally addressed in a Service Level
Agreement? (Choose two)
A. call flows
B. training material
C. products supported
D. days and hours of service
Answer: C,D

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NO.17 How can you pursue continuous learning to stay current with industry standards?
(Choose two)
A. create an individual development plan
B. conduct monthly performance reviews
C. volunteer for projects that require you to leam new information
D. communicate a need for change by providing a compelling business rationale
Answer: A,C

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NO.18 Which practice is important in improving the supportive atmosphere found in an
open and positive work environment?
A. use of visual status boards
B. empowerment from management
C. access to computer telephony technologies
D. specific statement of performance expectations
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which statement about contract staffing is true?
A. Contract employees can only be let go by their company.
B. Contract employees receive more benefits than full-time employees
C. Contract employees may hinder teamwork if they do not work closely with full-time
employees
D. Contract employees are allowed to work hours that are not specifically defined by
their company.
Answer: C

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NO.20 You are supporting someone from a different culture. How can you improve your
communication? (Choose three)
A. speak slowly and loudly
B. pause to verify understanding
C. encourage the person to ask for clarification
D. use proper/standard language expressions (eliminate slang)
Answer: B,C,D

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