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Exam Code: NS0-530
Exam Name: Network Appliance (NCIE - DataFort Security Exam)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 118 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which property must be set to prevent overlapped SCSI commands?
A. dfc.serialize_storage_cmds
B. dfc.disable_overlapped_cmds
C. dfc.disable_host_LIP
D. dfc.isp.enableTaskMgmtPassUp
Answer:A

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NO.2 What are three valid forced media type and duplex mode settings on the DataFort? (Choose three.)
A. 1000baseTX, full-duplex
B. 1000baseTX, half-duplex
C. 100baseTX, full-duplex
D. 100baseTX, half-duplex
E. 10baseTX, half-duplex
Answer: ACD

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NO.3 Which two key policies allow for all keys to be pre-generated and replicated to the DR site? (Choose
two.)
A. key per tape
B. key per pool
C. Global Pool with single key
D. periodic disk rekey
Answer: BC

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NO.4 Which two statements are true about signed DataFort log messages? (Choose two.)
A. They contain a verifiable digital signature.
B. They can only be authenticated on the DataFort that generated the log message.
C. They may not be sent to a syslog server.
D. They may not be sent to a Windows event log.
Answer:AB

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NO.5 California SB1386 requires businesses and government agencies to _____.
A. encrypt personal information on onsite backup tapes when reasonable alternative methods are not in
place
B. encrypt all personal information on offsite backup tapes when reasonable alternative methods are not
in place
C. encrypt all personal information on both disk and backup tapes, onsite or offsite, when reasonable
alternative methods are not in place
D. notify individuals if their unencrypted personal information is believed to have been disclosed to an
unauthorized person
E. notify the California District Attorney Office if unencrypted personal information is believed to have
been disclosed to an unauthorized person
Answer: D

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NO.6 During installation of the LKM server software, which configuration options can be specified?
A. database type and schema
B. target directory and license
C. server port number and "using SSL"
D. LKM server IP and hostname
Answer: B

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NO.7 If a DataFort 2.x or later appliance fails, which three information sources can be used with the DataFort
Wizard to recreate the configuration information on a replacement? (Choose three.)
A. *.xdf file from LKM software/appliance
B. mysqldump of DataFort configDB
C. *.xdf file from manual backup
D. *.lkm file from LKM software/appliance
E. surviving cluster member
Answer:ACE

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NO.8 Which two can authorize Key Translation? (Choose two.)
A. the source DataFort administrator
B. the destination DataFort administrator
C. the LKM administrator
D. a quorum of Recovery Cards and passwords
E. a Recovery Key Archive file
Answer: DE

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NO.9 In SAN 2.x, how many targets can be virtualized on an FC520?
A. 1
B. 7
C. 8
D. 31
Answer: B

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NO.10 What is the purpose of the Key Policy setting for tapes?
A. It determines whether or not each tape has a unique key.
B. It determines whether or not tape encryption keys can be shared by DataFort appliances.
C. It determines whether or not tape encryption keys are written to tape.
D. It determines how frequently tape keys are backed up.
Answer:A

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NO.11 Which two statements are true if a System Card is removed in a functional, fully initialized DataFort?
(Choose two.)
A. Encryption services are disabled after a reboot.
B. Encryption services halt within five minutes of card removal.
C. Recovery Card replacement does not work.
D. DataFort sends SNMP trap and initiates shutdown to protect access to encrypted data.
Answer:AC

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NO.12 What can the E-Series DataFort net util tcpdump command capture?
A. network packets going between two arbitrary machines
B. only network packets going between DataFort client-side NIC and arbitrary machines
C. only network packets going between DataFort server-side NIC and arbitrary machines
D. only network packets going between DataFort client-side NIC and server-side NIC
E. network packets going between DataFort client-side/server-side NIC and arbitrary machines
Answer: E

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NO.13 Which three factors should be considered when assessing the performance impact a DataFort will
have on an existing environment? (Choose three.)
A. the number of devices connected to a specific DataFort
B. the type of Cryptainer vault created (LUN Mapped versus Port Mapped)
C. the combined speed of all devices connected to the DataFort
D. the device type, tape or disk, being connected to the DataFort
Answer: ACD

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NO.14 Which is a correct System Card replacement procedure for SAN 2.x?
A. zeroize DataFort and restore with an initialized System Card and a recent configdb using a quorum of
Recovery Cards
B. zeroize DataFort and join an existing cluster with an uninitialized System Card and a quorum of
Recovery Cards
C. insert an uninitialized System Card into the DataFort and perform a System Card replacement using a
quorum of Recovery Cards
D. insert an initialized System Card from an existing cluster member and perform a System Card
replacement using a quorum of Recovery Cards
Answer: B

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NO.15 How many additional FC-switch ports are required for an inline direct-attached FC-5XX DataFort?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
E. 10
Answer:A

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NO.16 If you have an 8-node cluster, how many members must be online in the cluster in order to create
Cryptainer vaults?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 5
D. 8
Answer: C

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NO.17 When are Recovery Cards required in the trustee key-sharing process?
A. during the establishment of only the trustee relationship
B. during the establishment of the trustee relationship and the key export
C. during the establishment of the trustee relationship, key export, and key import
D. Recovery Cards are not required in the trustee key-sharing process.
Answer:A

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NO.18 Which two statements about disk and tape I/O are true? (Choose two.)
A. Disk and tape I/O can be combined through the same standalone DataFort.
B. Disk and tape I/O can be combined through the same cluster but not through the same DataFort.
C. Disk and tape I/O cannot be combined through the same standalone DataFort.
D. Disk and tape I/O cannot be combined through the same cluster.
Answer: CD

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NO.19 Which procedure is used to move keys between LKM servers or appliances that do not share network
connectivity?
A. clustering
B. key export and import
C. Key Translation
D. tape metadata
Answer: B

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NO.20 In 2.x firmware, how many virtual storage devices (targets) and virtual client hosts (initiators) can be
attached to a single FC525 model DataFort?
A. 1 virtual storage device and 8 virtual client hosts
B. 7 virtual storage device and 7 virtual client hosts
C. 8 virtual storage device and 8 virtual client hosts
D. 8 virtual storage device and 32 virtual client hosts
E. 16 virtual storage device and 128 virtual client hosts
Answer: B

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Exam Code: NS0-101
Exam Name: Network Appliance (NetApp Accredited Sales Professional Exam)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 87 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What can a customer use to quickly manage the full recovery process following a database corruption?
A.RAID-DP
B.SnapMirror
C.SnapManager
D.SnapRestore
Answer: C

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NO.2 A NetApp solution can be simultaneously used to store primary data, disk-to-disk backups, and act as a
WORM device. (True or False)
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which three are available NetApp Partner programs? (Choose three.)
A.lead generation
B.opportunity registration
C.PartnerGear
D.product test and development
Answer: ABC

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NO.4 From the corporate pitch, what does NetApp bring to the complex world of enterprise data
management?
A.unmatched scalability
B.unmatched services
C.unmatched simplicity
D.unified architecture
Answer: C

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NO.5 The NetApp strategy for addressing today's Data Management Challenges is based on a portfolio of
products.
These five strategies are: Store, _____, Retain, Protect, and Succeed.
A.Simplify
B.Manage
C.Grow
D.Expand
Answer: B

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NO.6 NetApp corporate pitch states that NetApp brings which benefit to the complex world of enterprise data
management?
A.eliminates risk in an enterprise environment
B.has lowest cost per TB
C.provides unmatched simplicity
D.completely removes complexity
Answer: C

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NO.7 NetApp is in the Leadership quadrant of the Gartner Magic Quadrant for Mid-Range Enterprise Disk
Arrays rating of storage vendors.
This is their highest rating and pertains to _____.
A.strategic business partnerships
B.financial stability
C.completeness of vision and ability to execute
D.world-class service and support
Answer: C

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NO.8 The NetApp corporate pitch states that the number one measurement of the company's success is
______.
A.maintaining growth
B.customer success
C.our share price
D.customer loyalty
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which benefit does NetApp FlexClone provide in a technical design environment?
A.an accelerated time to market
B.a reduced backup window
C.faster application throughput
D.increased data security
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which two customer requirements does the NetApp SnapLock solution meet? (Choose two.)
A.data permanence and retention regulations
B.data encryption regulations
C.secure partitioning of network and storage resources
D.rapid access to protected information
Answer: AD

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Exam Code: NS0-154
Exam Name: Network Appliance (Data ONTAP 8.0 7-Mode Administrator)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 148 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which set of protocols provide block-level access to NetApp storage?
A.CIFS and NFS
B.HTTP and FTP
C. iSCSI and FCP
D.SNA and RPC
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which three items are NFS resources for export? (Choose three.)
A.aggregate
B.directory/qtree
C.file
D.subnet
E.volume
Answer: BCE

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NO.3 Which three licenses are required for fabric-attached MetroCluster? (Choose three.)
A.Cluster
B.Cluster_remote
C.Syncmirror_local
D.Syncmirror_fabric
E.Syncmirror_remote
Answer: ABC

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NO.4 NTFS allows file access based on ___________.
A.NT ACLs and SID.
B.NT ACLs and UNIX permissions.
C.SID and password.
D.UNIX permissions.
Answer: A

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NO.5 If the security style is set to UNIX, CIFS client file access is determined by ___________ .
A.NT ACLs
B.the last client to set permissions
C.the mapped UNIX UID/GID of the CIFS client and the UNIX file permissions
D.This is not allowed: A CIFS client cannot access files in a path set to a security style of UNIX
Answer: C

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NO.6 For automatic user name mapping to occur for a CIFS and UNIX user name that are the same, you
must do what?
A.Enter the CIFS user in the NIS database.
B.Enter the user names in the /etc/hosts.equiv file.
C.Use both a NIS server and a Domain Controller in the network.
D.Nothing: mapping will occur if user name authentication is available.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Data ONTAP 8.0 7-Mode supports SMB 2.0 in Windows Vista and Windows Server 2008.
A.True
B.False
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which three protocols can coexist on a NetApp storage system? (Choose three.)
A.CIFS
B.DAFS
C.DFS
D.FCP
E.NFS
Answer: ADE

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NO.9 To determine the version of Data ONTAP in which a bug has been fixed, use the NOW site _______
utility. (Choose two.)
A.AutoSupport
B.Bugs Online
C.NetApp Diagnostics
D.Release Comparison
E.System Configuration Guide
Answer: BD

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NO.10 Which are three characteristics of an iSCSI or FCP SAN implementation? (Choose three.)
A.A LUN can be converted into a VLD.
B.LUNs can be accessed using the FCP protocol.
C.LUNs can be accessed using the iSCSI protocol.
D.Block services are associated with an iSCSI or FCP SAN environment.
Answer: BCD

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NO.11 In a tape environment after a SnapRestore reversion of a volume, incremental backup and restore
operations on the file or volume cannot rely on the timestamps to determine what data needs to be
backed up or restored. Which course of action ensures correct incremental backups?
A.Perform a base-level backup of the volume after you restore it.
B.Reboot the storage system to reset timestamps back to their original times before the reversion.
C.Take a new snapshot of the volume to create new base-level timestamps for the incremental backup.
D.Take a new snapshot of the volume to create new base-level timestamps for the incremental backup,
and then perform a base-level backup of the volume after you restore it.
Answer: A

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NO.12 What utility on the storage system will allow you to capture network packet information?
A.netstats
B.pktt
C.snoop
D.traceroute
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which two commands on the storage system allow you to gather detailed statistics about network
interfaces, including basic information about network connections? (Choose two.)
A.ifstat -a
B.netdiag -n
C.netstat -i
D.sysstat 1
Answer: AC

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NO.14 Host multi-pathing describes a _________ solution that has at least two distinct _________ paths to a
LUN.
A.FC or IP SAN, physical
B.FC or IP SAN, virtual
C.FC SAN, virtual
D.token ring, physical
Answer: A

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NO.15 To configure a storage system as a member of a Windows active directory domain, the time on the
storage system must be set to be within plus or minus five minutes of the time on the domain controller.
A.True
B.False
Answer: A

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NO.16 An iSCSI or FC SAN implementation provides _____ access to LUNs.
A.block
B.file
C.VIIP
D.VLD
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which changes the NDMP password on the Open System SnapVault agent?
A.password
B.password
C.svpasswd
D.svpassword
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which three /etc/snapmirror.conf entries will support synchronous or semi-synchronous SnapMirror?
(Choose three.)
A.FilerA:source_vol FilerB:destination_vol - sync
B.FilerA:source_vol FilerB:destination_vol - 0-55/5 * * *
C.FilerA:source_vol FilerB:destination_vol outstanding=3s sync
D.FilerA:source_vol FilerB:destination_vol visibility_interval=1hr, outstanding=3ms, cksum=crc32 sync
Answer: ACD

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NO.19 Which two commands can be used to enable LUN reservations? (Choose two.)
A.lun create
B.lun map
C.lun reservation set
D.lun set reservation
Answer: AD

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NO.20 Which two will allow you to read and analyze a packet trace file generated by the storage system?
(Choose two.)
A.Eternal View
B.Netmon
C.pktt
D.WireShark
Answer: BD

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Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 In double VLAN tagging, a second VLAN tag that is inserted into the frame is referred to as which of
the following?
A. Customer Identification tag (CD)
B. VLAN Identification tag (VID)
C. Outer Identification tag (OID)
D. Inner Identification tag (HD)
Answer: A

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NO.2 Performance debugging mode can be enabled on a sensor for a specified time duration by issuing
which of the following CLI commands?
A. sensor perf-debug 100
B. sensor perf-debug on 100
C. sensor perf-debug Interface all 100
D. sensor perf-debug assert 100
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which port needs to be opened for Alert Channel communication between Sensor and Manager
through a firewall?
A. 8501
B. 8502
C. 8503
D. 8555
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which port is correctly defined for the Alert Channel on the Network Security Manager?
A. 8500
B. 8501
C. 8502
D. 8504
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which port needs to be opened for Packet Log Channel communication between Sensor and Manager
through a firewall?
A. 8501
B. 8502
C. 8503
D. 8555
Answer: C

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NO.6 When placed in Layer3 mode, a Sensor detects a Layer2 device based on which of the following?
A. MAC address
B. IP address
C. DNS
D. Subnet
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which mode is used when certain hosts are located on the same network as a sensor and other hosts
enter through a router or VPN?
A. Mixed
B. Hybrid
C. Enforcement
D. Prevention
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following information is unique to Host Intrusion Prevention alerts? (Choose three)
A. Destination IP
B. User
C. Source IP
D. Agent IP
E. Agent name
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.9 What type of encryption is used for file transfers between the Sensor and the Manager?
A. SSL with RC4
B. SSL with MD5
C. SSL with RC4 and MD5
D. DES
Answer: D

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NO.10 Setting a threshold to allow an IPS to react when traffic volume exceeds the set limit is an example of
what type of detection method.?
A. Signature based
B. Pattern matching
C. Denial of Service
D. Remediation
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which mode needs to be set to redirect an unmanaged system to the guest portal?
A. Audit
B. Simulation
C. Enforcement
D. Prevention
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which database is supported for Network Security Manager?
A. MSSQL
B. Oracle
C. MySQL
D. Sybase
Answer: C

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NO.13 DoS detection is implemented in which of the following modes? (Choose two)
A. Learning mode
B. Configuration mode
C. Threshold mode
D. Bidirectional mode
E. Inbound mode
Answer: A,C

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NO.14 What is the CLI command that enables the output of the MAC/IP address mapping table to the sensor
debug files?
A. arp spoof status
B. arp spoof enable
C. arp dump
D. arp flush
Answer: C

McAfee   MA0-101   MA0-101

NO.15 Which attack cannot be blocked when the sensor has been set for in-line mode?
A. TCP Control Anomaly
B. ICMP Echo Anomaly
C. Too Many Inbound Syn
D. SCADA Attacks
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 117-199
Exam Name: Lpi (Ubuntu Level 1 Exam)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 94 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 You have installed a new window manager on an Ubuntu system, and find that it is not listed in the
"Session" menu on the graphical login screen. Which of the options below will fix this?
A. Create a file called ~/.Xsession and add a line which starts the window manager.
B. Add a suitable line to /etc/gdm/Xsession which starts the window manager.
C. Add an exec statement to /etc/X11/xinit/xinitrc which starts the window manager.
D. Create a .desktop file and place it in /usr/share/xsessions.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What text file is used to configure, among other things, the source databases used for resolving host
names, domain names, logins, and passwords?
A. /etc/shadow
B. /etc/resolv.conf
C. /etc/exports
D. /etc/services
E. /etc/nsswitch.conf
Answer: E

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NO.3 hald is
A. a daemon that populates /dev with device nodes for system hardware.
B. a system-independent abstraction layer to hardware registers.
C. a daemon that sends events about changes in the system's hardware to applications.
D. a kernel subsystem that provides hardware access to all userspace applications.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What sound daemon is used in a standard Ubuntu desktop installation?
A. alsa
B. arts
C. esd
D. jack
E. oss
Answer: C

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NO.5 What command is used to search repositories for packages whose name contains the string "ubuntu"?
A. apt-get -n search ubuntu
B. apt-cache -n search ubuntu
C. apt-cache -p search ubuntu
D. apt-file -n search ubuntu
E. apt-file -p search ubuntu
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which tool may be used to obtain a list of currently attached bluetooth devices?
A. lsbluetooth
B. hal-device-manager
C. hcidump
D. bluez-devices
Answer: B

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NO.7 You want Nautilus to run in spatial-mode instead of browser-mode. What will accomplish this?
A. Edit the appropriate XML file in ~/.gconfd/*, locate the "always_use_browser" entry and set the value to
false.
B. Set the "always_use_browser" key at the appropriate location in the gconf database to false.
C. Create an environment variable called NAUTILUS_ALWAYS_USE_BROWSER and set its value to
"true"
D. Edit ~/.nautilus/nautilus.conf and set the "always_use_browser" entry to false.
Answer: B

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NO.8 You manually changed the network configuration for eth2 in the configuration files. How would you
change the current settings for this network device only?
A. ifrestart eth2
B. ifdown eth2 ; ifup eth2
C. /etc/init.d/networking restart
D. /etc/network/interfaces
Answer: B

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NO.9 You need to pause the CUPS printer HPLaserjet4, and you want to cancel all print jobs with a message,
"hello". Which command will do this?
A. cupsreject -c -r hello HPLaserjet4
B. cupsreject -p -m hello HPLaserjet4
C. cupsdisable -c -r hello HPLaserjet4
D. cupsdisable -p -m hello HPLaserjet4
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is file system journaling?
A. a feature implemented in some file system drivers that provides a snapshot journal entry of a file
system's entire state
B. a logging facility, implemented by the fsjournald daemon, that records all file system configuration
changes to /var/log/filesystems
C. a feature of some file system drivers that makes file system operations atomic across reboots
D. a feature of some file system drivers that makes all disk I/O operations atomic
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 117-302
Exam Name: Lpi (LPI 302 Mixed Environment Exam)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 149 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 There are multiple network interfaces on a server. Which parameters must you set in smb.conf to limit
on which
interfaces Samba will accept connections? (Choose TWO correct answers)
A. listen interfaces
B. bind interfaces only
C. interfaces
D. listen address
Answer: BC

Lpi   117-302   117-302

NO.2 The following output is generated when trying to obtain tickets from the Kerberos realm:
# kinit user@SUB.DOMAIN.BIZ
Password for user@SUB.DOMAIN.BIZ
kinit(v5): Clock skew too great while getting initial credentials
How can the problem be fixed? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. ntpdate domaincontroller; hwclock -systohc
B. kinit -t
C. killall -HUP krb5kdc
D. Modify the time_sync value in the kdc.conf file.
E. Modify the clockskew value in the krb5.conf file.
Answer: AE

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NO.3 When setting up roaming profiles in a Windows network which includes Windows 98 desktops, which
Samba
parameter must be set?
A. logon drive
B. logon home
C. logon path
D. logon script
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which node type will use only NetBIOS broadcast requests using UDP broadcast?
A. b-node (type 0x01)
B. p-node (type 0x02)
C. m-node (type 0x04)
D. h-node (type 0x08)
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following commands will mount a remote Samba share when the user is Winuser and the
password is
somepass?
A. mount -t smbfs -o username=Winuser,password=somepass //SERVER/share /media/sambashare
B. mount -t smbfs -o username=Winuser,password=somepass \\SERVER\share /media/sambashare
C. mount -t smbfs -o Winuser%somepass //SERVER/share /media/sambashare
D. mount -t smbfs -o username=Winuser%somepass //SERVER/share /media/sambashare
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the meaning of a NetBIOS hybrid node (h-node) type client?
A. Client performs a broadcast and does not query WINS.
B. Client queries WINS first, and then broadcasts.
C. Client broadcasts first, and then queries WINS.
D. Client only queries WINS and does not broadcast.
E. Client only queries lmhost local file.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which command would create a machine account in Active Directory under the
Computers\BusinessUnit\Department\Servers organizational unit?
A. net rpc join -m localhost -ldap="ldap.ldapserver.com:Computers\BusinessUnit\Department\Servers"
B. rpcclient -c "join Computers\BusinessUnit\Department\Servers"
C. net ads join ou="Computers\BusinessUnit\Department\Servers"
D. net ads join "Computers\BusinessUnit\Department\Servers"
Answer: D

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NO.8 The response times on a Samba server are gradually increasing, so it is decided to experiment with
various socket
options in smb.conf. Which of the following are valid values for this parameter? (Choose THREE correct
answers)
A. TCP_NODELAY
B. SO_NOBROADCAST
C. SO_TXBUF
D. IPTOS_LOWDELAY
E. SO_KEEPALIVE
Answer: ADE

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NO.9 After installing a network with one Samba server and several clients, users are complaining that they
receive an
Unable to browse the network error when trying to visit a public share. What is the most likely cause of
this?
A. The user entered the wrong username and/or password.
B. The nmbd process is not running on the Samba server.
C. The user hasn't mapped the share to a local drive letter yet.
D. The Samba server is not configured as a Domain Master Browser.
Answer: B

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NO.10 What DHCP option can be set on a ISC DHCP server to tell NETBIOS clients that the WINS server has
the IP address
192.168.1.2?
A. option netbios-wins-servers 192.168.1.2;
B. option wins-netbios-servers 192.168.1.2;
C. option wins-name-servers 192.168.1.2;
D. option netbios-name-servers 192.168.1.2;
Answer: D

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NO.11 How is VFS (Virtual File System) support enabled in Samba?
A. Samba does not support VFS.
B. Compile and load vfs.ko kernel module.
C. Compile and load vfs.ko and its dependent smbfs kernel modules.
D. Compile and load pvfs.ko kernel module.
E. Compile Samba with VFS module support.
Answer: E

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NO.12 Which smb.conf configuration keyword determines the hostname resolution order?
A. use ads
B. name resolve order
C. use nsswitch.conf
D. use resolv.conf
Answer: B

Lpi   117-302   117-302 answers real questions

NO.13 In which section of the smb.conf configuration file is the logon script declared?
A. [homes]
B. [netlogon]
C. [global]
D. [profiles]
Answer: C

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NO.14 When migrating files from a Windows server A to a Samba server B with the command 'net rpc share
migrate files -S
A -destination=B -acls -attrs -U administrator', some files that originally belong only to a Windows group
(no user) will
generate errors during the migration. Which option in smb.conf will force such files to be mapped to the
correct UNIX
UID and GID?
A. use acl = yes
B. map group acls = yes
C. force unknown acl user = yes
D. inherit acls = no
Answer: C

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NO.15 When no WINS server is present, all name registrations and lookups are done by UDP _______.
A. broadcast
B. multicast
C. unicast
D. None of the above.
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which of the following statements are true when creating NETBIOS names? (Select TWO correct
answers.)
A. NETBIOS names can only use alphanumeric characters.
B. You can use a '.' in a NETBIOS name.
C. You can use an '_' (underscore) in a NETBIOS name.
D. NETBIOS names must be UPPERCASE
E. NETBIOS names can be a maximum of 32 characters
Answer: BC

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NO.17 Which of the following development libraries are used to make Samba compatible with ADS? (Select
TWO correct
answers.)
A. Kerberos
B. CUPS
C. LDAP
D. Win32
E. IMAP
Answer: AC

Lpi   117-302   117-302

NO.18 Which of the following should be backed up before a Samba version upgrade? (Choose TWO correct
answers.)
A. Libraries
B. TDB files
C. Configuration files
D. Binaries
E. winbindd_privileged directory
Answer: BC

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NO.19 Which of the following commands would you run to add your machine to an NT4 domain?
A. net rpc join -S PDC -UAdministrator%password
B. net ads join -s PDC -UAdministrator%password
C. net rpc join -s PDC -UAdministrator%password
D. net ads join -W PDC -nAdministrator%password
Answer: A

Lpi   117-302   117-302

NO.20 By default, Windows XP requires that passwords on your Samba server:
A. do not exceed 32 characters.
B. contain both numbers and letters.
C. are encrypted.
D. are changed every 30 days.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 190-825
Exam Name: Lotus (IBM WebSphere PORTAL 6 Deployment and Administration)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 103 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 In order to implement a highly available END-TO-END security solution for a production portal
environment, which of the following sets of components would be most useful?
A.Netegrity SiteMinder, Credentials vault, Dynamic Cache, Deployment Manager hot standby
B.Tivoli Access Manager, Load Balancing Edge component, Portal Cluster, LDAP server cluster
C.Tivoli Access Manager, Portal Cluster, Credential vault, Network-Attached Storage devices
D.Tivoli Access Manager, Netegrity SiteMinder, WebSphere Information Integrator, LDAP server cluster
Correct:B

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NO.2 Constance, a Portal user, is noticing that a portlet she utilizes takes a long time to render. Data is
drawn from other portlets, some of which access remote data. Which of the following can the
administrator implement to help reduce the time Constance waits for the portlet?
A.Portal clustering
B.Real-time database access
C.Parallel portlet rendering
D.Synchronous portlet transfer
Correct:C

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NO.3 Members of a WebSphere Portal cluster exist on multiple physical machines to distribute the
workload of a single logical WebSphere Portal image. What is this called?
A.Vertical scaling
B.Horizontal scaling
C.Multi-machine design
D.HTTP server separation
Correct:B

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NO.4 Particular Portal productivity editors in the Document Manager portlet need to be disabled.
Which of the following tasks must be performed?
A.Use Portlet Management to edit the properties of the Productivity editors portlet application
B.Select the Edit link on the Document manager portlet and uncheck the editors that must be disabled
C.Select the Design link on the Document manager portlet and uncheck the editors that must be disabled
D.Use the Manage Document Libraries portlet, select the Configure link and uncheck the editors that
must be disabled
Correct:C

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NO.5 ReleaseBuilder enables management of release configurations independent of which of the
following?
A.XML configurations
B.User configurations
C.Staged configurations
D.Generation configurations
Correct:B

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NO.6 Which of the following best describes the difference between horizontal cloning and vertical
clustering?
A.Vertical clustering takes advantage of the resources of a multiprocessor system; horizontal cloning
allows for upward scalability
B.Vertical clustering allows for users to authenticate against multiple LDAP sources; horizontal cloning
allows multiple servers to act as one server
C.Horizontal cloning replicates the back-end database in real-time; vertical clustering takes advantage of
multiple Websphere servers as a single cell
D.Horizontal cloning allows multiple HTTP servers to server in a failover scenario; vertical clustering
allows Portal servers to combine processor and memory into one virtual server
Correct:A

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NO.7 Which of the following statements BEST describes how WebSphere Portal's functionality is
implemented on the WebSphere Application Server?
A.WebSphere Portal is deployed as a Web Application on the WebSphere Application Server
B.WebSphere Portal runs as an Enterprise Application on the WebSphere Application Server
C.WebSphere Portal runs a servlet within the WebSphere Application Server's Web Container
D.WebSphere Portal is deployed as a portlet to WebSphere Application Server's Web Container
Correct:B

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NO.8 Composite applications can be defined by which of the following?
A.A group of applications that share a common theme
B.A list of applications available to the personalization server
C.A cluster of WebSphere Portal servers that share a common database
D.A compiled set of components that address a particular business need
Correct:D

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NO.9 When utilizing the IBM Portlet API, which of the following is valid regarding Cooperative
Portlets?
A.They cannot use Click-to-Action
B.They support chained propagation of data
C.They cannot broadcast properties to all target portlets at one time
D.They can only use wires to pass properties from source portlets to target portlets
Correct:B

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NO.10 In which of the following circumstances will a Consumer use the XML configuration interface to
create a Producer when utilizing Web Services for Remote Portlets?
A.When the Consumer is offline
B.Every time that a Consumer needs to create a Producer
C.A Consumer does not create a Producer using the XML configuration interface
D.When there is no Web Services Definition Language document available to the Consumer
Correct:A

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NO.11 As the Portal administrator, you are exporting and transferring a document library from a
staging system to a production system. You have successfully created an empty shared directory
to hold the exported document library. Both the staging and production servers have write access
to the shared directory. When you move the document library from the staging system to the
production system, which of the following occurs to private drafts?
A.They are converted to submitted drafts
B.They are transferred without modifications
C.They will all be converted to the same UUID
D.They are appended a new document version number
Correct:B

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NO.12 Portlets can write message and trace information to log files to assist the portal administrator
to investigate portlet errors and special conditions and help the portlet developer test and debug
portlets. In which of the following locations are these logs maintained?
A./logs
B./log/
C./portal/log
D./trace/logs
Correct:B

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NO.13 A common portlet is available to multiple virtual portals. However, you do not wish the
marketing virtual portal to utilize a PIM portlet. Which of the following offers the ability to restrict
the portlet from the marketing virtual portal users?
A.Portal Access Control
B.Portlet Security Control
C.Virtual Portal Restriction
D.Websphere Member Manager
Correct:A

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NO.14 In planning to utilize collaboration components, the existing Quickplace server utilizes a central
LDAP directory based on Lotus Domino. Both the Quickplace and the LDAP server are accessed
via SSL. Which of the following is correct if you wish to enable an IBM Lotus Sametime server into
the environment?
A.Sametime must utilize SSL and must point to its own local directory
B.Sametime has the option of using SSL and must point to its own local directory
C.Sametime must utilize SSL and point to the same directory that Quickplace accesses
D.Sametime has the option of using SSL and point to the same directory that Quickplace accesses
Correct:C

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NO.15 You are utilizing ReleaseBuilder to stage configurations between two releases. You are tracking
which configuration entities were removed, added or changed compared to the previous release.
Which of the following are created to detect deviations between one configuration and another?
A.Staged updates
B.Deletion updates
C.Differential updates
D.Configuration updates
Correct:C

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NO.16 Dana, a Portal user, is a member of multiple virtual portals in her company. Within the virtual
portals and PAC, you have made restrictions on what is visible, including scoping resources.
Which of the following Portal resources may not be controlled in this manner?
A.Portlets
B.Web modules
C.Portlet Applications
D.Composite applications
Correct:D

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NO.17 Your WebSphere Portal environment is supposed to access a remote LDAP directory that is
supported by another group in your organization. However, they will not allow changes to be
made to their LDAP directory structure. Portal has requirements that cannot be met by their
structure. Which of the following is the best possible solution?
A.Do not utilize the remote LDAP directory and create a local Cloudscape directory
B.Utilize the remote LDAP directory and disable all features that require customization
C.Utilize the remote LDAP directory and create a Lookaside database for additional profile information
D.Copy the remote LDAP directory into a local LDAP source and make the necessary customization
needed to utilize the local source
Correct:C

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NO.18 Margaret is in the process of copying a finance portlet application using the administrative
pages. Which of the following is true regarding the portlet data and portlet application data when
copied?
A.The portlet application data and the portlet data are copied from the original portlet
B.The portlet application and portlet are copied, but all the parameters are left blank for configuration by
the administrator
C.The portlet application parameters are copied from the original application, but the portlet parameters
are left blank in the copied portlet
D.The portlet application parameters are left blank since this is a new version of the portlet, but the portlet
parameters are copied from the original portlet
Correct:A

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NO.19 The business units of your enterprise have needs for their own portals. However, the demand on
server resources is not great enough to require parallel installations. In response, your enterprise
chose virtual portals. Which of the following are available across each of the virtual portals?
A.Portal search
B.Document management
C.Portal property file definitions
D.Anonymous pages per virtual portal
Correct:D

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NO.20 The company developers have provided you a new portlet for deployment in your company's
Portal cluster. Which of the following is the correct way to deploy the portlet to the cluster?
A.Deploy the portlet to one Portal cluster member in the cell with identical configurations
B.Deploy the portlet to the Deployment Manager specifying which cluster should receive the new portlet
C.Deploy the portlet to one Portal cluster member in the cell and let it propagate and run wpsconfig to
activate the portlet
D.Manually update the Deployment Manager wmcluster.xml file to include the new portlet name and to
which Portal cluster it should be deployed
Correct:C

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Exam Code: 190-520
Exam Name: Lotus (Maintaining Domino R5 Servers and Users)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 165 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Pia was listed as Editor in the ACL of EMPLOYEE.NSF. She created new documents and
existing documents, but now Pia can't edit any documents but her own.
What has changed?
A. An Authors field was added to the documents.
B. Her ACL level was changed to Author.
C. A Readers field was added to the documents.
D. The $Revisions field wad deleted from the documents.
Answer: B

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NO.2 At G¨¹ntersTech, the DomAdmin group is listed as Manager of all dat bases. All other
employees have Author access. A user changed another person's document because he had been
incorrectly given Editor access.
How can Jorgen, one of the administrators, see who changed the ACL?
A. Look in the Notes Log under the Database folder.
B. Check the ACL log on the server.
C. Look at the ACL log history in the ACL.
D. Changes are not logged for future review.
Answer: C

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NO.3 In order for Christine to access the server console from a Unix command line, which command
must Christine use?
A. Console
B. Cconsole
C. Rconsole
D. AdminConsole
Answer: B

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NO.4 Documentation suggests that Saruman check for a missing or incorrect Domain setting in
the NOTES.INI file. At server startup, the Router reads this setting and sends the message
"Mail Router started for the domain x" to the console and to the log file.
What command can Saruman type at the console to verify the NOTES.INI domain setting?
A. Show Configuration Domain
B. Set Configuration Domain
C. Test Configuration Domain
D. Verify Configuration Domain
Answer: A

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NO.5 Because of intermittent network problems, Edna wants administrators to be able to track
mail messages on all the servers in the domain. The administrators are listed in the
ADMIN group.
Which one of the following does Edna need to do to accomplish this?
A. Add the ADMIN group to the "Allowed to track message" field in each server's Configuration
document.
B. Add the ADMIN group only to the "Allowed to track message" field in the Administration
server's Configuration document by default.
C. Nothing. The ADMIN group is added to the "Allowed to track message" field in the
Administration Server's Configuration document by default.
D. Nothing. The ADMIN group is allowed to track message when the "Allowed to track
message" field in each server's Configuration document is left blank.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Vladimirhas Designer access in the Sales Discussion database. He has made several
changes and is ready to make them available to all replicas of the database. After a full
replication cycle he noticed that none of the changes have appeared.
What could cause this problem?
A. He needed manager access to make changes to replicas.
B. The design of the database is hidden.
C. Design changes are only made at 1 AM by the server Design task.
D. The originating server access was set too low on the other servers.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Eric created a shared agent to run hourly on newly created documents. He gave the server
Manager access to the database. However, the agent is still running.
Which one of the following describes how to fix the problem?
A. Run the agent using a User ID and not a Server ID.
B. List the server in the Server Tasks section of the Server document.
C. List the server in the Agent Manager section of the Server document.
D. List the server in the Agent Restriction section of the Server document.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Rodger is responsible for the Mail server at Certkiller . Routing is taking an unusually long
time and Rodger suspects that high traffic is slowing the process.
How can he increase the number of messages routing at one time?
A. Limit the number of users to connect concurrently.
B. Implement multiple MAIL.BOX databases to expedite mail routing on his server.
C. Limit the number of mail messages a user can send at one time.
D. Delete user mail files from his server to keep traffic down.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Magnus has deleted a resource reservation document and created a new one with updated
information to replace it.
What needs to take place to make the new resource available?
A. Replicate the Domino Directory.
B. Request the resource to be used when scheduling a meeting.
C. Administration Process updates the resource document in the Directory.
D. The resource is available when the resource document is saved.
Answer: C

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NO.10 To improve performance, Domino stores in memory information about HTTP commands,
databases, users and page formulas.
What is this feature called?
A. HTTP cache
B. Web cache
C. Domino Analyzer
D. Command cache
Answer: D

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NO.11 Amanda is responsible for all web access to Certkiller . Several users have reported that
they are getting the "Database browsing not allowed" error when trying to access
databases on one particular server.
What does Amanda need to do to fix this problem?
A. Go to all databases involved and deselect the "hide from web users" check box in database
properties.
B. Restart the server because databases haven't been refreshed recently.
C. Give the users manager access to the databases.
D. Make certain the option "Allow HTTP clients to browse databases" is enabled in the server
document for that server.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Where can Otto check to make sure mail is routing when the number in the "Route at once if
field" of the connection document is reached?
A. Count messages in MAIL.BOX.
B. Count messages in MAIL.NSF.
C. Check TRESHOLD.LOG.
D. Check MAILLOG.NSF
Answer: A

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NO.13 When displaying Topology Mapping for servers, there are lines that indicate types of
connections.
Which is not a valid connection type?
A. In-Use connection
B. Mail connection
C. Replication Connection
D. Mail and Replication Connection
Answer: A

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NO.14 Jennifer sees the "Unable to copy database" message in the Miscellaneous Events view if the log
indicating that a database is corrupted.
She is running transaction logging for the database.
What should she do?
A. Run the Fixup task with the -J option.
B. Run Updall
C. Reboot the server machine.
D. Make a new replica of the corrupted database with a different name, erase the old copy and
give the new copy it's name.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Johannes is Manager of the Problem Tracking database and is troubleshooting an agent.
The agent is written in LotusScript. He developed the database on Server B and replicated
it to Server A.
Why would the agent run fine on server A but not on Server B?
A. Server B is not in the same Notes Named Network.
B. Server B is a test server only.
C. Server B does not allow him to run agents.
D. Server B is a Hub server.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Bubba has several users with maul files over 2 GB. He has been requested to reduce the
size of mail files in the interest of saving disk space. By default, the router will continue to
deliver mail to a user even though his mail file is over its size quota.
How can Bubba prevent this?
A. Set "Obey database quotas during message delivery" to Enabled in a Configuration document.
B. From the Server console enter, "Tell Router Obey Quota".
C. In the database Quota setting, select "Router-Obey database Quota".
Answer: A

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NO.17 Ove has added an alternate name for Marcus.
Which method was NOT a procedure that Marcus could have used to add an alternate name?
A. Recertify User ID.
B. Register a new user.
C. Run the "Alternate name" agent.
D. Edit the person document, add the alternate name, then recertify the User ID.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Will selected "Pull only" in the "Router type" field on the connection document where
Domino32 server initiates a connection to Domino10 server.
When the connection is made, what routing activity will take place?
A. Domino32 will pull mail from Domino10.
B. Domino32 will push mail to Domino10.
C. Domino32 will tell Domino10 to pull mail from Domino32.
D. Domino32 will tell Domino10 to push mail to Domino32.
Answer: D

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NO.19 Max uses the console command "tell http restart".
Which command sequence is this equivalent to?
A. "Load http", then "tell http quit"
B. "Tell http quit", then "load http"
C. "Tell http quit", then "http"
D. "Quit", then "tell http load"
Answer: B

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NO.20 Using a Web client, Eva cannot access the Catalog database. Domino indicates that she is
not authorized to access the database.
Which one of the following caused this error?
A. Default ACL access is set to Reader.
Anonymous is not listed in the ACL.
B. Default ACL access is set to Reader.
Anonymous ACL access is set to No Access.
C. Default ACL access is set to No Access.
Anonymous ACL access is set to Reader.
D. Default ACL access is set to No Access.
Anonymous ACL access is set to Author.
Answer: B

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