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Exam Code: 4A0-M01
Exam Name: Alcatel-Lucent (Alcatel-Lucent IP/MPLS Mobile Backhaul Transport)
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Total Q&A: 150 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 The IETF is know for which standardization effort.?
A. It develops recommendations for core network functionality, broadband service delivery and next
generation services
B. It maintains Requests for Comment (RFC) that describe technical solutions to Internet challenges
C. It creates single, integrated network design guidelines to support mobile broadband services
D. It develops radio access services and systems for high capacity mobile networks
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which is a characteristic of the IEEE 802.3 Slow Protocol?
A. There are a maximum of 10 frames transmitted per second
B. There are a maximum of 20 slow protocol subtypes per interface
C. The maximum slow protocol frame size is 64 bytes
D. The slow protocol header carries the clock quality level
Answer: A

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NO.3 Click on the exhibit.
Given the configuration shown and the following conditions:
* The external reference is offline
* Reference 1 receives Quality Level (QL) - EEC1
* Reference 2 receives QL - SSU-A
Which quality level will the SAR router advertise to its Synchronous Ethernet (SyncE) peers?
A. QL-DNU
B. QL-EEC1
C. QL-SSU-A
D. QL-PRC
E. QL-UNC
Answer: B

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NO.4 An SROS router obtains its timing exclusively from its BITS input port. The router sets Quality Level
(QL) SONET Traceability Unknown (STU) on this Superframe (SF) framed DS1 BITS reference.
What must you configure on this master router to pass the best clock quality level to the downstream
Synchronous Ethernet (SyncE) slave nodes while maintaining traceability to the DS1 source?
A. Enable "ql-override prs" on the BITS reference
B. Enable "ql-override prs" on the master's SyncE ports
C. Enable "ql-selection prs" on the BITS reference
D. Set the master router to choose its source by quality level
Answer: A

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NO.5 Click on the exhibit.
Consider the topology and MLS1 configuration shown, and given the following conditions:
-MLS1 delivers the PRC traceable clock to the network
-Reference 1 receives Quality Level (QL) - ST3
-Reference 2 receives QL - DUS
-BITS sets QL-STU
Which quality level will MLS1 deliver to POC2-1 on its Synchronous Ethernet (SyncE) port 1/2/7?
A. QL-EEC2
B. QL-PRS
C. QL-ST3
D. QL-STU
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which synchronization technique supports time of day and phase synchronization?
A. IEEE 1588 v2/Precision Time Protocol (PTP)v2
B. Adaptive Clock Recovery (ACR)
C. Time Division Multiplexing (TDM) line timing
D. Synchronization Ethernet (SyncE)/Synchronization Status Message (SSM)
Answer: A

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NO.7 Click on the exhibit.
The command result indicates which condition on the Inverse Multiplexing over ATM (IMA) bundle?
A. The number of active links has dropped belowthe minimum threshold
B. The associated Layer 3 interface is administratively down
C. The remote IMA bundle is administrativelydown
D. The parent OC-3 is operationally down
Answer: C

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NO.8 In the Alcatel-Lucent SROS, which command creates the OC-3 path's Administrative Unit (AU)-4 Virtual
Container (VC) capacity?
A. configure port 3/1/2 sonet-sdh path au-4
B. configure port 3/1/2 sonet-sdh path sts3
C. configure port 3/1/2 sonet-sdh path tug-3
D. configure port 3/1/2 sonet-sdh path vc-4
Answer: B

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NO.9 Click on the exhibit.
Consider the topology and MLS1 configuration shown, and given the following conditions:
* MLS1 delivers the PRC traceable clock to the network
* Reference 1 receives Quality Level (QL) - EEC1
* Reference 2 receives QL - SSU-A
* BITS sets QL-SSU-B
Which quality level will MLS1 deliver to POC2-1 on its Synchronous Ethernet (SyncE) port 1/2/7?
A. QL-EEC1
B. QL-PRC
C. QL-SSU-A
D. QL-STU
Answer: B

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NO.10 Click on the exhibit.
On the OC-3 port, each provisioned channel group contains all available timeslots
The command result illustrates which OC-3 port characteristic?
A. On STS1-1,the second VT1.5 in the second VTG is set for IPCP encapsulation
B. On STS1-1,the second DS1 channel group in the second VTG isoperationallyup
C. On STS1-1, the second E1 channel group in the second TUG-2 is operationally up
D. On STS1-1, the second VT2 in the second TUG-2 is set for IPCP encapsulation
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which statement correctly describes the Point-to-Point (PPP) Multilink Protocol (MP) negotiation
process?
A. At least one link must complete Link Control Protocol (LCP) negotiations before the bundle can
initialize
B. The endpoints indicate their desire to implement MP in the link Network Control Protocol (NCP) phase
C. The bundle must complete LCP negotiations before it can enter the NCP negotiation phase
D. Internet Protocol-Control Protocol (IPCP) negotiations must succeed for the bundle links to initialize
Answer: A

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NO.12 Click on the exhibit.
Given the show command results shown:
With what IEEE 1588v2/Precision Time Protocol (PTP) v2 message did the slave node set the Unicast
message rates used by the master?
A. Announce granted
B. Announce request
C. Sync granted
D. Sync request
Answer: B

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NO.13 Click on the exhibit.
Given the following:
On the OC-3 port, each provisioned channel group contains all available timeslots.
The command result illustrates which circuit status?
A. The E1 channel group is administratively turned down
B. The DS1 circuit physical link is operationally down
C. The IMA bundle has no operational member links
D. The associated Layer 3 interface is operationallydown
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which statement best describes adaptive timing techniques?
A. Adaptive timing calculates the time of day from time stamped packets
B. Adaptive timing calculates the time of day from the arriving packet rate
C. Adaptive timing only supports frequency synchronization
D. Adaptive timing only operates on point-to-point links
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which timing technique can deliver time of day and phase synchronization information to the base
station without concern for Packet Delay Variation (PDV)?
A. Building Integrated Timing Supply (BITS)
B. Global Positioning System (GPS)
C. Adaptive Clock Recovery (ACR)
D. IEEE 1588v2/Precision Time Protocol (PTP)
Answer: B

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NO.16 Click on the exhibit.
Given the show command results shown:
Which IEEE 1588v2/Precision Time Protocol (PTP) v2 parent clock value does the slave first consider
when choosing its master?
A. GM Clock Priority1
B. GM Clock ID
C. GM Clock Priority2
D. GM Clock Class
Answer: D

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NO.17 In the Alcatel-Lucent SROS, which payload type set in a SDH-framed OC-12 port creates individual E1
containers?
A. Virtual Tributary (VT) 1.5
B. VT2
C. Virtual Container (VC)-11
D. VC-12
Answer: B

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NO.18 If an IEEE 1588v2/Precision Time Protocol (PTP) v2 slave times out announce messages with the
master, to which state does the slave port transition to choose another potential master?
A. Initial
B. Listening
C. Passive
D. Un-calibrated
Answer: B

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NO.19 When researching carrier-class Ethernet standards to support the mobile backhaul Ethernet transport,
which standards body would you consult?
A. IEEE
B. MEF
C. ITU-T
D. NGMN
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which messages, periodically sent between an IEEE 1588v2/Precision Time Protocol (PTP) v2 master
and slave, serve as hellos to help the slave choose the best available master?
A. Announce
B. Announce_grant
C. Sync
D. Delay_response
Answer: A

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NO.1 A collateral pool can be defined as:
A. assets lent by members of a payment system collectively available to the system as collateral to enable
them to obtain funds in specific circumstances
B. liabilities owned by members of a payments system collectively available to the system as collateral to
enable them to obtain funds in specific circumstances
C. assets owned by members of a payment system collectively available to the system as collateral to
enable them to obtain funds in specific circumstances
D. assets swapped by members of a payment system collectively available to the system as collateral to
enable them to obtain funds in specific circumstances
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is a nostro bank account?
A. an account held with another bank
B. an account another bank holds with you
C. a trust account
D. a suspense account
Answer: A

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NO.3 If the EUR/USD is quoted to you as 1.1050-53, what does this price represent?
A. EUR per USD
B. USD per EUR
C. the interest rate differential between EUR and USD
D. the fact that one USD is worth more than one EUR
Answer: B

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NO.4 In FX swaps, the rate of the spot leg
A. may be freely chosen by the quoting party as long as both parties agree on it
B. must always be fixed immediately at the current mid rate, to reflect the rate at the time the deal was
made
C. should be fixed immediately within the current spread, to reflect current rates at the time the
transaction was made
D. should always be fixed off the current spread in order not to be mistaken for a spot FX transaction
Answer: C

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NO.5 What type of documentation is recommended for repos in the international markets?
A. An Overseas Securities Lenders Agreement
B. A ISDA Master Repurchase Agreement
C. A SIFMA/ICMA Global Master Repurchase Agreement
D. An International Securities Lenders Agreement
Answer: C

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NO.6 You have two nostro accounts in USD, one account is long USD 5 million and the other is short USD 5
million. What action should be taken to reconcile the accounts?
A. No action is required. The credit interest earned on the credit balance will offset the debit interest
incurred on the short balance
B. You should borrow USD 5 million to cover the short balance and leave the long balance as it is
C. You should lend the surplus USD 5 million in order to overdraft charges on the short balance with the
interest earned on the loan
D. You should instruct the bank with the long balance to pay USD 5 million to the other bank
Answer: D

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NO.7 The notional amount in an interest rate swap is:
A. the sum of all the fixed and floating rate payments
B. the net difference between fixed and floating rate payments
C. the principal amount on which floating and fixed interest payments is calculated
D. the amount at which the two counterparties can close-out their transaction
Answer: C

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NO.8 Physical securities reconciliation software packages are based on:
A. SWIFT message type 5XX
B. SWIFT message type 2XX
C. SWIFT message type 320
D. SWIFT message type 400
Answer: A

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NO.9 The control failings involving Barings and Daiwa highlight the critical importance of what operational risk
management practice?
A. the taping of conversations between counterparties
B. model signing-off and implementation controls
C. the separation between front/back office duties
D. the existence of contingency plans
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is a feature of multilateral netting?
A. there are no more than two participants involved in the netting process
B. there is no redistribution of default risk
C. there is a central clearing house
D. no legal entity is required
Answer: C

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NO.11 You have just opened a position in EUR/USD that you run overnight. What risk is present?
A. settlement, counterparty and equity risk
B. only counterparty risk
C. only currency and interest rate risks
D. settlement, counterparty and market risk
Answer: D

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NO.12 The prompt sending and checking of confirmations is considered a best practice when dealing in:
A. amounts higher than USD 10,000,000.00 or the equivalent in other currencies
B. amounts higher than USD 1,000,000.00 or the equivalent in other currencies
C. any amount unless dealt via a broker
D. any amount by any counterparty
Answer: D

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NO.13 When should discrepancies between front-office and back-office systems be resolved?
A. by the end of the trading day
B. on the next business day
C. on the value date
D. as soon as they become apparent
Answer: D

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NO.14 Under normal circumstances, which of the following is a non-negotiable instrument?
A. a Medium Term Note
B. a Bankers Acceptance
C. a Money Market Deposit
D. a Treasury Bill
Answer: C

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NO.15 Today is the fixing date for 6x9 FRA that you sold at 5.50% and for which the FRABBA LIBOR is now
6.00%. Which of the following is true?
A. You will pay a cash settlement to the counterparty
B. You will receive the cash settlement
C. There is no cash settlement pending
D. There is insufficient information to make a determination
Answer: A

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NO.16 What does "modified following business day convention" mean?
A. a convention whereby a transaction is dated the following business day, unless that day extends into
the next month, in which case it is dated the preceding business day
B. a convention whereby a transaction is dated the following business day
C. a convention whereby a transaction is dated the preceding business day
D. a convention whereby a transaction is dated the next business day that corresponds to the same
numerical day of the month as the preceding payment
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which of the following is the main objective of position-keeping?
A. measuring market exposure
B. defining capital adequacy
C. evaluating country risk
D. monitoring counterparty credit risk
Answer: A

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NO.18 How many characters does a BIC have? (Under ISO standard 9362, 2nd edition)
A. 6 or 9 characters
B. 9 or 12 characters
C. 7 or 10 characters
D. 8 or 11 characters
Answer: D

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NO.19 Your money market dealer has lent GBP 5,000,000.00 at 4 3/4% for 6 months (183 days). How much
must the counterparty pay back to you in capital plus accrued interest at maturity?
A. GBP 5,117,123.29
B. GBP 5,119,075.00
C. GBP 5,119,075.34
D. GBP 5,120,729.17
Answer: C

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NO.20 The maximum term for which a London Certificate of Deposit may be issued is:
A. 1 year
B. 3 years
C. 5 years
D. 10 years
Answer: C

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NO.1 When previewing a physical drive on a local machine with FTK Imager, which statement is true?
A.FTK Imager can block calls to interrupt 13h and prevent writes to suspect media.
B.FTK Imager can operate from a USB drive, thus preventing writes to suspect media.
C.FTK Imager can operate via a DOS boot disk, thus preventing writes to suspect media.
D.FTK Imager should always be used in conjunction with a hardware write protect device to prevent
writes to suspect media.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which three items are displayed in FTK Imager for an individual file in the Properties window? (Choose
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A.flags
B.filename
C.hash set
D.timestamps
E.item number
Answer: ABD

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NO.3 In FTK, which search broadening option allows you to find grammatical variations of the word "kill" such
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A.Phonic
B.Synonym
C.Stemming
D.Fuzzy Logic
Answer: C

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A.individual files
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C.contents of a folder
D.all currently listed items
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NO.1 Which of the following is NOT a standard port available on the Router 5012?
A. ISDN
B. Console
C. Serial WAN
D. 10/100 Ethernet
Answer: A

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B. False
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following routers supports version 2.41 router code?
A. 5231
B. 5232
C. 5640
D. 5680
Answer: B

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NO.4 True or False: The Flexible Interface Cards (FICs) in the Router 6040 can be hot
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A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.5 What kind of modules does the Router 5232 use?
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B. MIMs only
C. SICs and MIMs
D. SICs and FICs
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NO.1 How many times will "HELLO" be printed?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
for(int i=?1; i<=10; i++)
{
if(i < 5)
continue;
else
break;
cout<<"HELLO";
}
return 0;
}
A. 1
B. 2
C. 0
D. 20
Answer: C

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NO.2 What happens if you try to compile and run this program?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main (int argc, const char * argv[])
{
print("Test");
return 0;
}
void print(int c[])
{
cout<<c;
}
A. It prints: Test
B. Compilation fails
C. Program terminates abnormally
D. None of these
Answer: B

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NO.3 What will happen when you attempt to compile and run the following code?
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int getValue();
int main()
{
const int x = getValue();
cout<<x;
return 0;
}
int getValue()
{
return 5;
}
A. It will print 0
B. The code will not compile.
C. It will print 5
D. It will print garbage value
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which of the following tools can be used to create one or more properties with a common
Applies
To class?
A. Application Explorer
B. Define Property Wizard
C. PAL
D. Class Explorer
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which two statements are true about work covers and covered work objects? (Choose three.)
A. A covered work object can belong to many work folders
B. Work covers can be nested within other work objects
C. Work covers can become a parent to one or more related work objects
D. Work covers can be resolved automatically when all covered work objects belonging to that
cover are resolved
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.3 Decision Table rules can be edited in Excel.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.4 When an Application Profile and Application Accelerator process is started, they both create
actual
PRPC work objects that keep track of the choices made and can be saved.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following statuses is the standard default status assigned to all new work
objects?
A. Open
B. New
C. Resolved-Completed
D. Start
Answer: B

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NO.6 The Application Accelerator can be utilized without first creating an Application Profile in the
Application Profile wizard.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.7 Why do Pegasystems best practices suggest limiting flow rules to 15 SmartShapes? (Excluding
Connectors, Notify, Comment, Pool, Swimlane, and Router shapes)
A. Flows with more than 15 shapes cannot be printed
B. More than 15 SmartShapes in one flow rule may result in performance issues
C. In order to improve readability, maintainability, and ease in traceability when debugging the
application processes
D. Flows with more than 15 SmartShapes cannot be updated
Answer: C

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NO.8 Service level rules include which of the following time intervals? (Choose two.)
A. Milestone
B. Requirement
C. Goal
D. Deadline
Answer: C,D

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NO.9 What does "Build For Change(r)" mean?
A. Build applications without change control, in order to complete projects more quickly
B. Launch applications as soon as possible so that performance testing can be done in Production
C. Build applications that are more easily adaptable due to inevitable business change
D. Business architects initially build PRPC applications and system architects subsequently
change them
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which two statements are true about Declarative Expression rules? (Choose two.)
A. They can perform a computation
B. They can constrain a property to a range of values.
C. They can execute an Activity upon creation of a work object.
D. They can display the result of a Decision table
Answer: A,D

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NO.1 The Manage by Exception principle sets tolerances for six areas of the project, Time. Cost and
Quality are three of them, what are the other three?
A. Scope, People & Resources, Benefit
B. Scope, Risk, Product
C. Risk, Benefit, Product
D. Scope, Risk, Benefit
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following principles describes this statement?" xxx defines tolerances for each
project objective to establish limits of delegated authority"
A. Manage by stages
B. Focus on products
C. Manage by exception
D. Learn from experience
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
The Learn from Experience principle suggests that lessons should be actively sought...
A. When Starting a Project
B. When Initiating a Project
C. As the project progresses
D. As the project closes
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following statements describes an outcome?
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B. A result of the change derived from using the project's products
C. A measurable improvement resulting from a change
D. Something perceived as advantages by a stakeholder
Answer: B

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A. Tailor to suit the project environment
B. Focus on products
C. Manage by stages
D. Continued business justification
Answer: B

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A. Reasons
B. Major Risks
C. Business options
D. Business approach
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which statement best explains the purpose of Tailor to suit the project environment?
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C. To tailor the use of the principles to suit the project
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NO.8 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the Continued Business Justification?
A. The justification for the project must remain the same throughout the project
B. The justification for the project should remain valid
C. The justification for the project may change
D. If the project is no longer justified it should be stopped
Answer: B

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A. Pooling the storage into a server virtualization model whereby different servers can emulate hosts and
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D. Pooling the storage across different vendors?storage arrays into assigned volume groups and use
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Answer: C

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has 15000 RPM Fibre Channel drives while the Tier 3 storage has 7200 RPM SATA drives. What is the
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A. Use the multi-pathing architecture to zone the host dedicated to the Tier 1 storage and zone a separate
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B. Non-disruptively promote the volumes from the Tier 3 storage to the Tier 1 storage before the
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C. Define data policies which will automatically migrate data to Tier 1 and Tier 3 storage levels providing
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D. Non-disruptively place all of the 15000 RPM drives in one array and all of the 7200 RPM drives in
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Answer: B

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NO.3 What are two functions of the Data Path Module? (Choose two.)
A. DPM processes control frames.
B. DPM processes data frames.
C. DPM manages metadata.
D. DPM translates addresses.
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 Why would a customer use thin provisioning to manage their storage?
A. to provision more physical capacity to a LUN than is actually needed
B. to cluster LUNs of similar type into one management entity
C. to add more volumes to a management domain than are supported by hardware
D. to create large virtual volumes based on a small amount of physical capacity
Answer: D

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NO.5 Your SVM customer calls with questions about performance tuning in their VMware environment. One
of their storage arrays is not running fast enough to support the application for several days each month.
What would you recommend?
A. Buy a faster storage array and move the data with multiView.
B. Use multiCopy to copy the data to a different storage tier, stop the application and remount the data to
the copy.
C. Back up the data off a snapshot and restore it to a faster array.
D. Use multiMigrate to move the application's data to a higher performing storage tier for the busy days.
Answer: D

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NO.6 When consolidating onto a new storage platform, what actually moves the data?
A. the Data Path Module
B. the SVM server
C. the storage array
D. the SAN switch
Answer: B

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NO.7 What are three functions of the SVM server? (Choose three.)
A. The SVM server processes control frames.
B. The SVM server processes data frames.
C. The SVM server manages metadata.
D. The SVM server translates addresses.
E. The SVM server moves data.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.8 What are two recommended ways of organizing pools? (Choose two.)
A. by host
B. by RAID level
C. by DPM
D. by users
Answer: B,D

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NO.9 What are two ways that SVM supports consolidation? (Choose two.)
A. SVM can reserve space for future use on a LUN-by-LUN basis.
B. SVM can build RAID structures for enhanced data protection.
C. SVM can migrate data from multiple storage arrays onto a single storage array.
D. SVM can make snapshots of volume groups that are spread across multiple storage arrays.
Answer: C,D

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NO.10 How can SVM's centralized management provide better performance?
A. by allocating capacity across RAID arrays
B. by striping volumes across RAID arrays
C. by mirroring volumes across RAID arrays
D. by provisioning additional servers
Answer: B

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NO.11 A long time customer and SVM prospect just called requesting your help to virtualize their data center
using VMware. What are three ways that SVM's snapshot capabilities will help this customer? (Choose
three.)
A. SVM snapshots will eliminate tape from the customer's environment.
B. SVM makes it possible to keep the point-in-time snapshots online for extended periods of time and to
recover from them quickly.
C. SVM snapshots can eliminate the need to install backup agents on every virtual machine.
D. SVM snapshots will protect from physical failures.
E. SVM snapshots can be used to reduce time required to stage, test, and debug software applications.
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.12 An SVM prospect just called requesting that you virtualize their data center using VMware. What are
three ways that SVM's volume management capabilities will help this customer? (Choose three.)
A. SVM allows users to quickly and efficiently create and manage volumes for each of the virtual
machines.
B. SVM eliminates the need to deal with ongoing LUN management at the array level.
C. SVM will prevent the virtual servers from running out of space.
D. SVM allows storage be provisioned and reallocated after use with the same simplicity as the virtual
servers.
E. SVM will size the volumes to the actual data size.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.13 Your customer calls to discuss their DPMs and their consolidation project's impact on their DPM port
count. They are moving from a pair of dual controllers with four ports to one dual controller with eight ports.
Which statement accurately describes what they should do.?
A. They will need four more ports on each DPM.
B. They will need four fewer ports on each DPM.
C. They will need eight more ports on each DPM.
D. They will not need to change their DPM port count.
Answer: D

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NO.14 What is an advantage of using thin provisioning over traditional capacity provisioning?
A. A thin volume serves up only the data blocks called for by a read or write request.
B. A thin volume automatically provisions additional capacity for large I/O read requests.
C. A thin volume holds only the changes (writes) made by hosts to the thin volume.
D. A thin volume migrates data from an existing LUN into a new pool.
Answer: C

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NO.15 When moving existing LUNs into a pool, which feature would you use?
A. SVM multiCopy
B. SVM multiMirror
C. SVM multiView
D. SVM disk import
Answer: D

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NO.16 A long time customer just called requesting your help justifying SVM as they virtualize their data center
using VMware. What are three reasons SVM's storage services would benefit this customer? (Choose
three.)
A. Rapid application recovery is easier with SVM's snapshot capabilities.
B. SVM will make provisioning easy and fast.
C. Disaster recovery will be less expensive than using traditional methods.
D. SVM will eliminate the need for tape.
E. SVM will automatically size storage to fit the data.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.17 Your customer calls to discuss their SVM servers and their consolidation project's impact on their SVM
server port count. They are moving from a pair of dual controllers with four ports to one dual controller with
eight ports. Which statement accurately describes what the impact will be?
A. They will need four more ports on each SVM server.
B. They will need four fewer ports on each SVM server.
C. They cannot change the SVM server's port count.
D. They will need eight more ports on each SVM server.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which statement describes tiered storage?
A. An infrastructure designed to lower the overall cost of storage by placing volumes on "fit for purpose"
storage based on defined cost, availability, and performance requirements.
B. An infrastructure designed to place data on the storage devices that have the lowest price per
megabyte ratio.
C. An infrastructure designed to place data on different storage devices to ensure a heterogeneous
model.
D. An infrastructure designed to place data on different storage devices to ensure a homogeneous model.
Answer: A

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NO.19 What are three benefits of using thin provisioning? (Choose three.)
A. reclaiming trapped capacity
B. creating empty volumes to reserve capacity
C. expanding volume capacity automatically
D. making multiple copies of volumes for backups
E. saving money on overall storage costs
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.20 Your client is concerned about disaster recovery. You are explaining that SVM can recover from both
physical and logical failures positioning the fact that the majority of failures are actually logical. What
would be a good example for your client?
A. file deletion
B. hardware failure
C. loss of a site due to a disaster
D. split-path architecture
Answer: A

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NO.1 Jan has a Website selling shoes and socks online. She would like to use Google AdWords'
costperacquisition approach for her ads. If Jan uses this approach what must she also do?
A. Jan must also use Google Checkout.
B. Jan must be a preferred Google vendor.
C. Jan must use the Conversion Optimizer.
D. Jan must set her CPC maximum bids to a minimum of 25 cents.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Bob is reviewing his Google AdWords for the Google Content Network, which has been running for the
past sixty days. Bob is interested in the view-through conversion tracking. What is viewthrough
conversion tracking.?
A. It's the number of conversions that have happened after a user saw, but didn't click, Bob's ad.
B. It's the number of conversions that have happened from a video ad.
C. It's the conversion rate for ads in the Google Content Network.
D. It's the cost of conversions that have happened after a user saw Bob's ad online.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Allen is managing ads for his company and he'd like to include the ads in the Google Content Network.
Where does Allen configure automatic placements of ads in the Google Content Network for his
campaigns?C
A. Allen will select "Relevant pages across the entire network" in the "Network Settings" section on his
"Settings" tab.
B. Allen will select "Relevant pages across the entire network" in the "Network Settings" section on his
"Networks" tab.
C. Allen will select "Relevant pages across the entire network" in the "Ad Settings" section on his
"Settings" tab.
D. Allen will select "Relevant pages across the entire network" in the "Network Settings" section on his
"Opportunities" tab.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Amy is managing a Google AdWords campaign for her company. Her manager has asked Amy to
create a performance report for the overall campaign performance. What steps will Amy take to generate
this performance report?
A. Amy will click Campaigns, then Reports, then Create New Report for All Campaigns, and then she'll
select the Campaign Performance option.
B. Amy will click Reporting, then Reports, then Create New Report, and then she'll select the Campaign
Performance option.
C. Amy will click Campaigns, then Reports, then Create New Report, and then she'll select the Campaign
Performance option.
D. Amy will click Opportunities, then Keywords, then Create New Report, and then she'll select the
Campaign Performance option.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Google has some very specific recommendations for planning a display campaign. According to Google,
what is the top recommendation for planning an effective display campaign?
A. Set your bids and budget.
B. Identify your goals.
C. Find your target audience.
D. Create your custom display ad.
Answer: B

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NO.6 In the Google Content Network, there are three bidding strategies that a Google AdWords advertiser
may use. Which one of the following is NOT one of the three bidding strategies in the
Google Content Network?
A. Cost-per-acquisition bidding
B. Cost-per-month bidding
C. Cost-per-click bidding
D. Cost-per-thousand bidding
Answer: B

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NO.7 Mary Jane wants to use the view-through conversion tracking feature in Google AdWords. How long
must Mary Jane's ad run before she can use this feature accurately?
A. 30 days
B. 60 days
C. 24 hours
D. 7 days
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following tools will you use to identify potential ad group themes for your display
campaigns?
A. Google analytics
B. Google trends
C. Wonder wheel
D. Display ad builder
Answer: C

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NO.9 Google makes many recommendations for Google AdWords users for direct response campaigns.
One of the recommendations Google makes is to implement cost-per-click bidding so that you only pay
when people click your ad. What other reason is valid for using the cost-per-click bidding?
A. If you want to be included in Google Content Network, you must use cost-per-click bidding.
B. If you are creating a display ad, you must use cost-per-click bidding.
C. If you want to include video overlays ads, you must use cost-per-click bidding.
D. If you want to use the Conversion Optimizer tool, you must use cost-per-click bidding.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following tabs will you use to see and edit details of all the ad groups in your AdWords
account?
A. Ad groups
B. Campaign
C. Statistics
D. Status
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following is one of the reserved media placements available on YouTube?
A. Play rate
B. Partner Watch Pages
C. Display ad builder
D. AdWords Auction
Answer: B

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NO.12 Examine the image given below:
What Google Tool is being used in the image above?
A. Google Wonder Wheel
B. Google Rich Media Ad Builder
C. Google Ad Builder
D. Google Ads Diagnostic Tool
Answer: C

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NO.13 Henry has created a video that he'd like to include in the Google Content Network. His video is a
demonstration of a product that he sells on his website. With this type of content, what type of video
advertising is Henry interested in using in the Google Content Network?
A. Overlay video ad
B. In-stream video ad
C. Click-to-play video ad
D. Video placement ad
Answer: C

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NO.14 Consider the image shown below:
What will happen if you click on the "history of soccer" link in the image?
A. You'll be taken to the first page with the keyword "history of soccer" in the Google search r esults.
B. Another line will branch out from "soccer" with related links to the "history of soccer" link.
C. The "soccer" wheel will fade to the background and a new wheel called "history of soccer" will be
created.
D. Google AdWords will display ads related to the "history of soccer" for this keyword.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following bidding strategies will you use if you are focused on a particular customer action,
such as leads or purchases?
A. CPA bidding
B. CPM bidding
C. Manual CPC bidding
D. Automatic CPC bidding
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which of the following is a Google property where display ads are eligible to appear?
A. MSN
B. YouTube
C. Wonder wheel
D. Yahoo
Answer: B

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NO.17 Jeffrey has an online store that caters to collectors of antique pins based on comic book characters.
His audience is small, but dedicated. If you were advising Jeffrey about his online advertising sales, which
of the following would be the best strategy considering Jeffrey's audience?
A. Use the Google Content Network for niche placements.
B. Use the Google Content Network with automatic placements based on hundreds of comic-book based
keywords.
C. Use Google AdWords for search marketing.
D. Use Google AdWords with hundreds of comic-book based keywords.
Answer: A

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NO.18 You are managing a Google AdWords campaign for a company. You launch a new display campaign.
In the first week of the campaign launch, you noticed a large number of clicksbut no conversions. Which
of the following actions can you perform to resolve the issue?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Increase bidding for successful sites.
B. Verify that your conversion code is set up correctly.
C. Evaluate performance of campaign regularly.
D. Check the ad creative and the landing page to make sure they are well matched.
Answer: B,D

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NO.19 Andy is a consultant to a business that wants to advertise in the Google Content Network. He
recommends that the business owner use the contextual targeting for his ads. What is the contextual
targeting?
A. The contextual targeting allows the business owner to target specific languages.
B. The contextual targeting allows the business owner to select keywords related to the products for sale
so his ads will show on related Websites.
C. The contextual targeting allows the business owner to target specific demographics.
D. The contextual targeting allows the business owner to insert ads into a series of related We bsites.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Fred is a Google AdWords consultant for his client. He is explaining to his client that there are actually
three ways to add managed placements to an ad group. Which one of the following is NOT one of the
three methods Fred can use to add managed placements to an ad group?
A. Manually adding
B. Browsing the Web for placements with the Google AdWords toolbar
C. Copying from the automatic placement table
D. Using the Placement tool
Answer: B

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