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Exam Code: HP3-031
Exam Name: HP LaserJet 3000 and 3380/90 AIO series
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Exam Code: Hp2-E30
Exam Name: HP BladeSystem Sales Consultant (2010)
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Exam Code: HP3-C32
Exam Name: HP Color LaserJet Enterprise CP4020/CP4520 Series Printer
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NO.1 What allows remote status and diagnostics of HP LaserJet 3055 for multiple users?
A. Toolbox FX
B. Embedded Web Server
C. Printer Driver
D. Send Fax Utility
Answer: A

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NO.2 When should a customer run the scrubber?
A. only with a failed software-first installation
B. only with a failed hardware-first installation
C. for either a failed software-first or hardware-first installation
D. never, for use by authorized personnel only
Answer: B

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NO.3 What three areas of the scanning mechanism have been improved to result in faster scan speed?
A. firmware, software, and hardware
B. power save mode, wake-up time, and formatter
C. firmware, HP LaserJet scan software, and scanner bulb warm up time
D. scanner head start position, scanner bulb warm-up time, and firmware
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer calls because he has been unable to install the software for this all-in-one device. He is
running Windows 2000 as a client.
What do you tell the customer?
A. The all-in-one device does not support Windows 2000.
B. The all-one-device supports only Windows 2000 Server.
C. The all-in-one device must be installed by a member of an IT department.
D. The person installing the all-in-one device must have administrative privileges to install the software.
Answer: D

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NO.5 How should you install an HP LaserJet 3015, 3020, 3030, and 3380 all-in-one device self-tapping
screw?
A. First turn the screw counterclockwise to align it with the existing threads. Then turn it clockwise to
tighten.
B. Use a flathead screwdriver to tighten the screw until it is flush against the side of the all-in-one device.
C. Use a #2 Philips head screwdriver to tighten the screw as tightly as you can, Over-tightening of this
type of screw is impossible.
D. Use aTorx head screwdriver to tighten the screw as tightly as you can. Over-tightening of this type of
screw is impossible.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-B11
Exam Name: HP Designjet Foundations Datasheet
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Exam Code: Hp2-E21
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Exam Code: HP2-N28
Exam Name: Selling HP Fortify Security Assurance Solution
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NO.1 .What is the main characteristic of the format JPEG?
A. Format the image file with the tagged content.
B. Format of the image file, in which the indexed color palette.
C. image file format that uses compression technology with data loss.
D. Preservation of formatting for the file to be transferred between computer architectures.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the function of feeder ink?
A. Cleaning the printhead.
B. Assistance in cleaning up the feed and share clips.
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C. Mounting of cartridges and ink in the printhead.
D. Submission of ink in the tube during the closing and cleaning printheads.
Answer: A

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NO.3 .Which statement is true with respect to PCL?
A. Optimized for printers Designjet.
B. Requires more memory the printer than the memory card HP-GL.
C. It is used for printing high quality graphics in vector form.
D. It is used for printing high quality graphics in bitmap format.
Answer: A

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NO.4 .In some models when installing a roll Designjet function folding excess material in the paper roll is
performed in accordance with the sequence of treatment users. What gives?
A. A minimum of waste paper.
B. Paper does not get dirty.
C. Accuracy of using the tracking parameter length of the material.
D. Proper protivonatyazhenie material in the boot process to prevent warping of the paper.
Answer: A

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NO.5 You're on your printer Designjet, printheads which have been configured. The printer re-installed and
ready for inclusion. What is the next step should be taken?
A. Before turning to manually fill the tube with ink.
B. Hold the top button, turn the power to automatically fill tubes with ink.
C. Set the configured printheads and follow the instructions on the front panel display.
D. Remove the printheads are configured, installed in the cartridge for transportation, establish a working
print heads, and include meals.
Answer: B

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NO.6 For some reason the line can be a bit uneven? (Choose two options.)
A. Damage printhead
B. Too heavy paper
C. The deformation of the paper itself
D. The use of paper, which was kept in extreme conditions
Answer: AD

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NO.7 What HP Designjet printers are ideal for professional graphics applications? (Choose two answers.)
A. The HP Designjet 1930 series
B. The HP Designjet 4500 series
C. The HP Designjet 5500 series
D. The printer HP Designjet 500/800 series
Answer: BC

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NO.8 Which statements about forming a halftone images when printing is correct? (Choose two answers.)
A. halftone is an image in the "Sepia".
B. halftone image is converted into a series of dots that simulate the original image.
C. Formation of the grayscale image - a process of varying the density and structure of black and white
dots to simulate shades of gray.
D. Formation of a grayscale image - a process of varying the density and structure of blue, purple and
yellow dots to limit the amount of ink required for your vehicle.
Answer: BC

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Exam Code: HP5-E01D
Exam Name: Delta - Selling HP SMB Solutions
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Exam Code: HP2-E49
Exam Name: Technical Essentials of HP Servers, Storage and Networking - Upgrade
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NO.1 Your customer's consulting business is experiencing a decline in growth. The customer needs
to reduce operating expenses. With a seat size of 45 employees, how can visualization help the
customer operate efficiently?
A. reduce network traffic on the company's intranet, reducing overall operating expenses
B. provide ability to split up workloads for higher efficiencies and better application support
C. move all operations to the cloud, eliminating the need for onsite IT support
D. eliminate the need to refresh hardware which reduces overall capital expenses
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is a good way to introduce HP Lync Solutions into a conversation with a customer?
A. by asking the customer to identify the specific features of their PBX phone system they like most
B. by finding out if the customer is satisfied with their current PBX provider
C. by asking the customer how they plan to address the obsolescence of their legacy PBX
D. by asking about additional features the customer would like to see included in their PBX
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the best response to a customer who needs to reduce expenses, but is concerned that
switching from their aging PBX system to Lync with voice capabilities will not meet their needs?
A. Extend the capabilities of your existing PBX system by adding an HP Lync Solution to your existing
environment.
B. Reduce expenses with an HP Lync UC solution by leveraging Microsoft's existing platform and
familiar interface, enabling users to quickly adopt the tools.
C. Improve employee productivity and gain a competitive advantage with an HP Lync Solution by
providing anywhere access on any device.
D. Deploy an HP Lync Solution alongside your existing environment until you are ready to switch
from the PBX system to Lync.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What cost-effective solution component enables branch office workers to continue
collaborating with each other and making external calls even when the corporate network is
unavailable?
A. Survivable Branch Communication zl Module powered by Lync
B. HP Intelligent Management Center
C. Redundant IT Infrastructure at the branch office
D. Redundant Branch Office Network switches
Answer: A

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NO.5 How do HP VDI solutions support customers with "Bring Your Own Device" (BYOD) initiatives?
A. Employees are only allowed to connect to the data center with devices that are purchased
through a reputable HP dealer or reseller
B. Employee-owned devices are implicitly allowed to connect to the data center through a virtual
desktop, providing employees maximum freedom and flexibility in their work environment
C. HP VDI solutions include a 'back door' access procedure that allows employees to bypass security
checkpoints when connecting to the data center with their personal devices.
D. Client visualization software runs on qualified endpoint devices to enable users to securely
connect to the data center through a virtual desktop.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which statement best describes HP VDI reference architectures for midmarket businesses?
A. They provide general suggestions for do-it-yourself client virtualization implementations.
B. They are monolithic designs that implement HP-only products.
C. They provide end-to-end solutions that are fully-tested, customizable, do-it-yourself blueprints
for midmarket businesses.
D. Although they are written for enterprise customers,HP VDI reference architectures can be
adapted to mid-sized businesses.
Answer: C

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NO.7 What top concern might a customer in the healthcare industry have with client virtualization?
A. System Availability - a virtualized client environment is far less reliable than a traditional IT data
center
B. IT Efficiency - client virtualization increases employee flexibility but burdens IT with increased
support demands for routine activities
C. Security - client virtualization is risky because it exposes the business environment and its assets
to malicious intrusion
D. Employee Productivity - client virtualization imposes a steep learning curve on employees as it
requires a change in how they interact with the data center
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP2-Z26
Exam Name: Fast Track - Implementing HP Network Technologies
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Exam Code: HP2-T19
Exam Name: HP BladeSystem Solutions [2010]
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NO.1 Which feature of the BL465c G7 allows the server to accommodate 16 DIMM slots and retain the
half-height form factor?
A. PCIe Gen 2 x8 mezzanine expansion slots
B. AMD SR5690/SP5100 chipset
C. Hot Plug Drive Drawer
D. Smart Array P410i Controller with 1GB FBWC
Answer: B

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NO.2 DRAG DROP
Place each server blade on its recommended application type.
Answer:

NO.3 Which HP blade comes with a license for Microsoft Cluster Server (MSCS)?
A. BL490c
B. BL870c
C. X3800sb
D. xw2x220c
Answer: C

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NO.4 What happens when you turn the enclosure UID to "On" on the Insight Display of a c7000 enclosure?
A. The rear enclosure UID LED illuminates and the color of the Insight Display changes to blue.
B. The front enclosure UID LED illuminates and the color of the Insight Display changes to blue.
C. The rear enclosure UID LED illuminates and the color of the Insight Display changes to green.
D. The front enclosure UID LED illuminates and the color of the Insight Display changes to green.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is needed to connect a Windows-based laptop to the c7000 or c3000 enclosure service port and
successfully communicate with the Onboard Administrator?
A. a laptop with the network interface set to DHCP and a null modem cable
B. a laptop with the network interface set to DHCP and a standard CAT5 patch cable
C. a laptop with the network interface set to an address in the 192.168.1.x range and a CAT5 crossover
cable
D. a laptop with the network interface set to an address in the 192.168.1.x range and a standard CAT5
patch cable
Answer: B

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NO.6 How does a c7000 enclosure retain air handling integrity when a server blade is removed?
A. The enclosure design uses blank panels to prevent air loss.
B. A blanking panel causes the air flow to reverse, allowing warmer air to escape.
C. The enclosure uses a self-closing door to prevent air loss.
D. The fans increase in revolutions per minute to increase air volume.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which interconnect can be used with the Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) capability of the new G7
Series of c-Class blades?
A. HP 1/10Gb-F Virtual Connect Ethernet
B. HP Virtual Connect Flex-10 10Gb Ethernet
C. Virtual Connect FlexFabric
D. HP ProCurve 6120G/XG interconnect
E. HP Virtual Connect FC Module
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which feature is supported by the zx2 chipset in the Integrity BL860c?
A. hot spare and hot-plug of memory DIMMs
B. up to 512GB of memory (not fully buffered DIMMs)
C. memory DIMM error correction (chip sparing)
D. 512-bit, 800MHz (800 MT/s, 1600MHz data rate) memory bus
Answer: C

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NO.1 How does the Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) improve network availability?
A. by providing redundant links between edge and core layers
B. by providing redundant connections to the Internet
C. by providing backup default gateways for client devices
D. by supporting the configuration of redundant gateways on VRRP-enabled clients
Answer: C

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NO.2 HP E5400 zl switches have the ability to mirror traffic from one switch to another. Which action should
you take when implementing remote mirroring?
A. Configure a connection-rate filter.
B. Enable the instrumentation monitor.
C. Enable jumbo frames.
D. Enable a bandwidth limit.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Your CIO wants you to investigate IT defense in depth. What does this mean?
A. You need to purchase a deep-packet inspection Intrusion Prevention System (IPS).
B. You need to upgrade your firewalls to next-generation firewalls.
C. You need to plan a comprehensive strategy that addresses security at many layers.
D. You need to leverage the network infrastructure built-in security features rather than look for
appliance-based solutions.
Answer: C

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NO.4 When a router must determine which route to include in its route table, when does the router use
administrative distance in the decision.?
A. when the router has learned about multiple routes to the same destination from static configurations or
different routing protocols
B. when the router has learned about multiple routes from equal-cost paths to the same destination
C. when the router is configured with static routes to the same destination that specify the same cost but
different next hop router interfaces
D. when the router has learned about multiple routes to the same destination from different sources using
the same routing protocol
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is one security challenge that is specifically addressed by dynamically refreshing encryption keys?
A. Users forget their passwords and forget how to connect.
B. Hackers are more likely to crack a key when they have many frames encrypted with that key.
C. Asymmetric keys, which are more secure than symmetric keys, must be distributed dynamically.
D. Static encryptions keys can protect data's privacy, but not its integrity.
Answer: B

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NO.6 You must configure four HP E8212 zl switches and six HP E5406 zl switches to support Multiple
Instance Spanning Tree (MSTP) on a network. What must you do to ensure that all the switches join the
same MST region?
A. Configure the switches with identical Uplink Priorities for common switch-to-switch links.
B. Configure Bridge Priorities on each switch so that all MST instances have a different Root Bridge.
C. Configure the switches with identical config-names, config-revisions, and VLAN-to-instance mappings.
D. Configure all switch-to-switch links in each MST instance as tagged members of all VLANs.
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is an advantage of locating intelligent routing at the edge of an enterprise network instead of only
in the core?
A. The edge-oriented strategy supports VRRP and MSTP for default gateway redundancy.
B. The edge-oriented strategy requires fewer VLANs and networks.
C. The edge-oriented strategy simplifies route summarization because only routers must support VLANs
only for directly connected users.
D. The edge-oriented strategy allows traffic to traverse the network after the routing decisions have been
made.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which statement is true about the HP E5400 zl switch Connection-rate Filtering feature?
A. It detects threats with both a signature-based engine and an anomaly-based engine that can detect
zero day attacks.
B. A connection-rate ACL can be used to allow some or all inbound traffic through a port that has been
throttled or blocked.
C. It uses sFlow traffic sampling to determine whether traffic activity represents an intrusion.
D. The connection-rate filter sensitivity is configurable per port, VLAN, or link aggregation group.
Answer: B

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NO.1 Why must the imaging and printing environment be secure?
A. Most imaging and printing devices are no longer simple network appliances.
B. Most imaging and printing devices are network appliances and need protection from physical
theft.
C. NIST (National Institute of Standards and Technologies) requires it.
D. IEEp2600 standards require it.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What are components in the HP Imaging and Printing Security framework? (Select four.)
A. Secure your data.
B. Secure your printing devices.
C. Protect your printed documents.
D. Improve workflow through authenticating network devices.
E. Reduce network traffic.
F. Monitor and manage your printing fleet.
G. Enable print job tracking and accounting.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.3 Which competitive advantages does HP offer for security when combined with printing and
imaging devices? (Select three.)
A. HP approaches security holistically.
B. HP partners with hacker organizations.
C. HP is the undeniable expert in securing and backing up networked data.
D. HP Web Jetadmin is the industry leading utility for managing imaging and printing devices.
E. HP is the undisputed leader in imaging and printing.
F. HP encrypts all printer data before sending it across a network.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.4 Why are job accounting audit trails useful for imaging and printing devices?
A. They restrict the use of color printing as needed.
B. They demonstrate that printers are being used.
C. They demonstrate that regulatory compliance is taking place.
D. They are used in accountant offices during tax season.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Why is job accounting information gathered and utilized for billing and pay-for-use?
(Select three.)
A. to aid in installing, configuring and managing printer fleets remotely
B. to demonstrate that a company is making efforts to protect information
C. to gather data so it can be encrypted for security reasons
D. to track network usage and make network telephony changes
E. to show proof of compliance to regulators
F. to detect abuse of information sharing and digital communication outside the company
G. to create an electronic workflow for archiving hard copies
Answer: C,D,F

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NO.1 You are installing your R70Security Gateway.Which is NOT a valid option for the hardware platform?
A.Crossbeam
B.Solaris
C.Windows
D.IPSO
Answer: B

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NO.2 A Security Policy installed by another Security Administrator has blocked all SmartDashboard
connections to the stand-alone installation of R70.After running the fw unloadlocal command, you are
able to reconnect with SmartDashboard and view all changes.Which of the following change is the most
likely cause of the block?
A.A Stealth Rule has been configured for the R70 Gateway.
B.The Allow control connections setting in Policy > Global Properties has been unchecked.
C.The Security Policy installed to the Gateway had no rules in it
D.The Gateway Object representing your Gateway was configured as an Externally Managed VPN
Gateway.
Answer: B

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NO.3 John is the Security Administrator in his company He installs a new R70 Security Management Server
and a new R70 Gateway He now wants to establish SIC between them.After entering the activation key,
the message "Trust established" is displayed in SmartDashboard, but SIC still does not seem to work
because the policy won't install and interface fetching still does not work.What might be a reason for this?
A.This must be a human error.
B.The Gateway's time is several days or weeks in the future and the SIC certificate is not yet valid.
C.SIC does not function over the network.
D.It always works when the trust is established.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which command displays the installed Security Gateway version?
A.fw stat
B.cpstat -gw
C.fw ver
D.tw printver
Answer: C

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NO.5 You have blocked an IP address via the Block Intruder feature of SmartView Tracker How can you view
the blocked addresses'?
A.Run f wm blockedview.
B.In SmartView Monitor, select the Blocked Intruder option from the query tree view
C.In SmartView Monitor, select Suspicious Activity Rules from the Tools menu and select the relevant
Security Gateway from the list
D.In SmartView Tracker, click the Active tab.and the actively blocked connections displays
Answer: C

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NO.6 A digital signature:
A.Provides a secure key exchange mechanism over the Internet
B.Automatically exchanges shared keys
C.Guarantees the authenticity and integrity of a message
D.Decrypts data to its original form.
Answer: A

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NO.7 In previous version, the full TCP three-way handshake was sent to the firewall kernel for inspection.How
is this improved in current Flows/SecureXL?
A.Only the initial SYN packet is inspected The rest are handled by IPSO
B.Packets are offloaded to a third-party hardware card for near-line inspection
C.Packets are virtualized to a RAM drive-based FW VM
D.Resources are proactively assigned using predictive algorithmic techniques
Answer: A

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NO.8 What are you required to do before running upgrade__ export?
A.Run cpconfig and set yourself up as a GUI client.
B.Run a cpstop on the Security Management Server
C.Run a cpstop on the Security Gateway.
D.Close all GUI clients
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.1 Your company has the requirement that SmartEvent reports should show a detailed and
accurate view of network activity but also performance should be guaranteed. Which actions should
be taken to achieve that?
-Use same hard drive for database directory, log files and temporary directory -Use Consolidation
Rules -Limit logging to blocked traffic only -Using Multiple Database Tables
A. (i), (ii) and (iv)
B. (i), (iii), (iv)
C. (ii) and (iv)
D. (i) and (ii)
Answer: C

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NO.2 Refer to the network topology below. You have IPS Software Blades active on the Security
Gateways sglondon, sgla, and sgny, but still experience attacks on the Web server in the New York
DMZ. How is this possible?
A. AH of these options are possible.
B. The attacker may have used a bunch of evasion techniques like using escape sequence instead of
cleartext commands. It is also possible that there are entry points not shown in the network layout,
like rogue access points.
C. Since other Gateways do not have IPS activated, attacks may originate from their network
without anyone noticing.
D. An IPS may combine different detection technologies, but is dependent on regular signature
updates and well-turned anomaly algorithms. Even if this is accomplished, no technology can offer
100 % protection.
Answer: C

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NO.3 In configure a client to property log in to the user portal using a certificate, the Administrator
MUST:
A. Create an internal user in the admin portal.
B. Install an R76 internal Certificate Authority certificate.
C. Create a client certificate from Smart Dashboard
D. Store the client certificate on the SSL VPN Gateway
Answer: C

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NO.4 How do you verify the Check Pant kernel running on a firewall?
A. fw ctrl get kernel
B. fw ctrl pstat
C. fw kernel
D. fw ver -k
Answer: D

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NO.5 TotallyCoolSecuirty Company has a large security staff. Bob configured a new IPS
Chicago_Profile for fw-Chicago using Detect mode. After reviewing Matt noticed that fw-Chicago is
not detecting any of the IPS protections that Bob had previously setup.
Analyze the output below and determine how Matt corrects the problem.
A. Matt should assign the fw-Chicago Security Gateway to the Chicago_Profile.
B. Matt should the Chicago_Profile to use Protect mode because Detect mode
C. Matt should re-create the Chicago_Profile and select Active protections manually instead of per
the IPS Policy.
D. Matt should activate the Chicago_Profile as it is currently not activated.
Answer: A

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NO.6 You just upgraded to R76 and are using the IPS Software Blade You want to enable all critical
protections while keeping the rate of false positively very low. How can you achieve this?
A. The new IPS system is based on policies, but it has no ability to calculate or change the
confidence level, so it always has a high rate of false positives.
B. This can't be achieved; activating any IPS system always causes a high rate of false positives.
C. The new IPS system is based on policies and gives you the ability to activate all checks with critical
severity and a high confidence level.
D. As in SmartDefense, this can be achieved by activating all the critical checks manually.
Answer: C

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NO.7 In which case is a Sticky Decision Function relevant?
A. Load Sharing - Unicast
B. Load Balancing - Forward
C. High Availability
D. Load Sharing - Multicast
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which Remote Desktop protocols are supported natively in SSL VPN?
A. Microsoft RDP only
B. AT&T VNC and Microsoft RDP
C. Citrix ICA and Microsoft RDP
D. AT&T VNC, Citrix ICA and Microsoft RDP
Answer: D

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NO.1 What are the SmartProvisioning Policy Status indicators?
A. OK, Down, Up, Synchronized
B. OK. Waiting, Out of Sync, Not Installed, Not communicating
C. OK, Unknown, Not Installed, May be out of date
D. OK, Waiting, Unknown, Not Installed, Not Updated, May be out of date
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which specific R70 GUI would you use to view the length of time a TCP connection was open?
A. SmartView Tracker
B. SmartView Status
C. SmartView Monitor
D. Eventia Reporter
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is a task of the IPS Event Analysis Server?
A. Assign a severity level to an event.
B. Display the received events.
C. Forward what is known as an event to the IPS Event Analysis server
D. Analyze each IPS log entry as it enters the Log server.
Answer: D

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NO.4 You want VPN traffic to match packets from internal interfaces- You also want the traffic to exit the
Security Gateway bound for all site-to-site VPN Communities, including Remote Access Communities.
How should you configure the VPN match rule?
A. Communities > communities
B. Internal_clear > External_Clear
C. Internal_clear > All_GwTogw
D. Internal_clear > All_communities
Answer: D

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NO.5 Using IPS, how do you notify the Security Administrator that malware is scanning specific ports?
By enabling:
A. Malware Scan protection
B. Sweep Scan protection
C. Host Port Scan
D. Malicious Code Protector
Answer: C

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NO.6 You believe Phase 2 negotiations are failing while you are attempting to configure a site-to-site VPN
with one of your firm's business partners. Which SmartConsole application should you use to confirm your
suspicions?
A. SmartDashboard
B. SmartView Tracker
C. SmartUpdate
D. SmartView Status
Answer: B

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NO.7 You have selected the event port scan from internal network in Eventia Analyzer , to detect an event
when 30 ports have occurred when 60 seconds. You want to detect two ports scans from a host within 10
seconds of each other. How would you accomplish this?
A. You cannot set Eventia Analyzer to detect two port scans within 10 seconds of each other.
B. Select the two port-scan detections as a new event.
C. Select the two port-scan detections as a sub event.
D. Select the two port-scan detections as an exception.
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is the benefit to running Eventia Analyzer in Learning Mode?
A. There is no Eventia Analyzer Learning Mode
B. To run Eventia Analyzer, with a step-by-step online configuration guide for training/setup purpose
C. To run Eventia Analyzer with preloaded sample data in a test environment
D. To generate a report with system Event Policy modification suggestions
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which of the following commands is used to restore NGX configuration
information?
A. cpcontig
B. cpinfo-i
C. restore
D. fwm dbimport
E. upgrade_import
Answer: E

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NO.2 After being authenticated by the Security Gateway, When a user starts an HTTP
connection to a Web site, the user tries to FTP to another site using the command
line. What happens to the user? The:
A. FTP session is dropped by the implicit Cleanup Rule
B. user is prompted from that FTP site on~, and does not need to enter username and
password for Client Authentication
C. FTP connection is dropped by rule2
D. FTP data connection is dropped, after the user is authenticated successfully
E. User is prompted for authentication by the Security Gateway aqain
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which command allows you to view the contents of an NGX table?
A. fw tab -s <tablename>-
B. fw tab -t <tablename>-
C. fw tab -u <tablename>-
D. fw tab -a <tablename>-
E. fw tab -x <tablename>-
Answer: B

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NO.4 Ophelia is the security Administrator for a shipping company. Her company uses a
custom application to update the distribution database. The custom application
includes a service used only to notify remote sites that the distribution database is
malfunctioning. The perimeter Security Gateways Rule Base includes a rule to
accept this traffic. Ophelia needs to be notified, via atext message to her cellular
phone, whenever traffic is accepted on this rule. Which of the following options is
MOST appropriate for Ophelia's requirement?
A. User-defined alert script
B. Logging implied rules
C. SmartViewMonitor
D. Pop-up API
E. SNMP trap
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the command to see the licenses of the Security Gateway Certkiller from
your SmartCenter Server?
A. print Certkiller
B. fw licprint Certkiller
C. fw tab -t fwlic Certkiller
D. cplic print Certkiller
E. fw lic print Certkiller
Answer: D

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NO.6 Certkiller needs to back up the routing, interface, and DNS configuration
information from her NGX SecurePlatform Pro Security Gateway. Which
backup-and-restore solution do you recommend for Certkiller?
A. Database Revision Control
B. Manual copies of the $FWDIR/conf directory
C. upgrade_export and upgrade_import commands
D. SecurePlatformbackup utilities
E. Policy Package management
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which VPN Community object is used to configure VPN routing within the
SmartDashboard?
A. Star
B. Mesh
C. Remote Access
D. Map
Answer: A

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NO.8 You have two Nokia Appliances one IP530 and one IP380. Both Appliances have
IPSO 39 and VPN-1 Pro NGX installed in a distributed deployment Can they be
members of a gateway cluster?
A. No, because the Gateway versions must not be the same on both security gateways
B. Yes, as long as they have the same IPSO version and the same VPN-1 Pro version
C. No, because members of a security gateway cluster must be installed as stand-alone
deployments
D. Yes, because both gateways are from Nokia, whether they have the same VPN-1 PRO
version or not
E. No, because the appliances must be of the same model (Both should be
IP530orIP380.)
Answer: B

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NO.1 Static passwords such as VPN-1 & FirwWall-1 and operating system passwords are cached on the
desktop and users are not required to re-authenticate. Which of the following does NOT clear the
password cache?
A. Receives a policy update.
B. Perform a disconnect from a connect mode.
C. Selects the Stop VPN 1 SecuRemote option from the File menu.
D. Selects the Erase Passwords option from the Passwords menu.
E. Reboots the computer.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Ann is a VPN-1/FireWall-1 Security Administrator. Her organization's solution for remote-access
security is SecureClient. Ann's organization is undergoing a security audit. The auditor is concerned,
because static passwords, such as VPN-1 & FireWall-1 and operating system passwords are cached on
the desktop, and users are not required to re-authenticate. Which of the following explanations addresses
the auditor's concerns?
A. The auditor has incorrect information. SecureClient caches all passwords. A strong encryption
algorithm
protects the proprietary database used for password caching, so there is never a need to purge cached
passwords.
B. The auditor has incorrect information. SecureClient never cached passwords. SecureClient users are
forced
to re-authenticate for each new connection, regardless of the type of password used.
C. Cached passwords are purged when SecureClient receives Policy and Topology updates. Most
installation
update Security Policies frequently, so cached passwords are rarely stored for longer than six to eight
hours.
Renaming the userc.C file to userc.old will also purge the password cache.
D. Cached passwords are purged at an interval specified in the Desktop Security Policy. As long as the
user.C
file is encrypted, users cannot tamper with the interval setting. The interval time is in seconds from the
time to
SecureClient software is launched.
E. Cached passwords are purged when SecureClient is stopped, when a connect mode is disconnected,
and
when the computer is rebooted. SecureClient users can manually purge the cache, by choosing the Erase
Passwords option from the Passwords menu.
Answer: E

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NO.3 When upgrading a configuration to NG with Application Intelligence: (Choose the
FALSE answer)
A. Upgrade the SmartConsole.
B. Upgrade each module's version in SmartDashboard manually.
C. Upgrade the VPN-1/Firewall-1 Enforcement Modules.
D. Copy $FWDIR/state from one version of VPN-1/FireWall-1 to another version of
VPN-1/FireWall-1.
E. Upgrade the SmartCenter server. The version is set during the upgrade.
Answer: D

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NO.4 You are using Hybrid IKE for Client Authentication. SecureClient produces the error Certifcation is
badly signed. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem and the appropriate
solution?
A. Under the firewall object > VPN > IKE Properties > Support Authentication Methods, Hybrid Mode is
not
selected. Select the Hybrid Mode option, and stop and restart the Enforcement Module.
B. The Distinguished Name used is too long. Change it to a shorter name in the Manage Certificate
Properties screen.
C. The certificate created by the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) is corrupt. Create a new certificate.
D. The SecureClient and VPN-1/FireWall-1 Enforcement Module to which it is attempting to connect are
running incompatible versions. Upgrade the SecureClient to NG with Application Intelligence.
E. The digital signature is missing. Add the digital signature to the certificate in the Manage Certificate
Properties screen.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following is NOT a method of Load Balancing with
VPN-1/FireWall-1?
A. Domain Load Balancing
B. Round Robin
C. Server Load
D. Round Trip
E. Quantum Load Balancing
Answer: E

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NO.6 Ann would like to deploy H.323 with a gatekeeper and gateway on her internal network. This network
is
behind a VPN-1/FireWall-1 Enforcement Module. Which of the following objects is NOT required to
configure VPN-1/FireWall-1 for H.323 in this scenario?
A. Address Range representing internal IP-addressed phones
B. Gatekeeper Node Object
C. Address range of external IP-addressed phones
D. Voice over IP (VoIP) Gateway Node Object
E. Voice over IP (VoIP) Domain Object
Answer: C

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NO.7 Mark is preparing to install VPN-1/FireWall-1 and has created the installation plan below.
1. Perform the following operations below in sequential order.
2. Install the operating system.
3. Configure routing and IP forwarding.
4. Configure name resolution.
5. Patch the operating system.
6. Set $FWDIR and $CPDIR environment variables.
7. Install VPN-1/FireWall-1.
8. Patch VPN-1/FireWall-1,
Which step in Mark's installation plan is NOT necessary?
A. Operating-system patches should not be applied, until after VPN-1/FireWall-1 is installed. Applying
operating-system patches before VPN-1/FireWall-1 is installed will result in an unsecured system.
B. VPN-1/FireWall-1 configures name resolution automatically. Name resolution should not be part of the
installation plan.
C. There is nothing wrong with Mark's installation plan.
D.
Routing and IP Forwarding should be configured after VPN-1/FireWall-1 is installed. Configuring routing
and
IP forwarding before VPN-1/FireWall-1 is installed will result in an unstable system.
E. VPN-1/FireWall-1 configures environment variables automatically. Configure environment variables
should
not be part of the installation plan.
Answer: E

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NO.8 Which of the following statements about IKE Encryption are TRUE? (Choose three
)
A. The final packet size is increased after it is encrypted.
B. TCP and IP headers are encrypted, along with the payload.
C. IKE uses in-place encryption.
D. IKE can use the FWZ1 encryption algorithm.
E. IKE uses tunneling encryption.
Answer: A, B, E

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NO.1 NGX Wire Mode allows:
A. Peer gateways to establish a VPN connection automatically from predefined preshared secrets.
B. Administrators to verify that each VPN-1 SecureClient is properly configured, before allowing it access
to the protected domain.
C. Peer gateways to fail over existing VPN traffic, by avoiding Stateful Inspection.
D. Administrators to monitor VPN traffic for troubleshooting purposes.
E. Administrators to limit the number of simultaneous VPN connections, to reduce the traffic load passing
through a Security Gateway.
Answer: C

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NO.2 The list below provides all the actions Check Point recommends to troubleshoot a problem with an NGX
product.
A. List Possible Causes
B. Identify the Problem
C. Collect Related Information
D. Consult Various Reference Sources
E. Test Causes Individually and Logically
Select the answer that shows the order of the recommended actions that make up Check Point's
troubleshooting guidelines?
F. B, C, A, E, D
G. A, E, B, D, C
H. A, B, C, D, E
I. B, A, D, E, C
J. D, B, A, C, E
Answer: A

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NO.3 fw monitor packets are collected from the kernel in a buffer. What happens if the buffer becomes full?
A. The information in the buffer is saved and packet capture continues, with new data stored in the buffer.
B. Older packet information is dropped as new packet information is added.
C. Packet capture stops.
D. All packets in it are deleted, and the buffer begins filling from the beginning.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which file provides the data for the host_table output, and is responsible for keeping a record of all
internal IPs passing through the internal interfaces of a restricted hosts licensed Security Gateway?
A. hosts.h
B. external.if
C. hosts
D. fwd.h
E. fwconn.h
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which files should be acquired from a Windows 2003 Server system crash with a Dr. Watson error?
A. drwtsn32.log
B. vmcore.log
C. core.log
D. memory.log
E. info.log
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which statement is true for route based VPNs?
A. IP Pool NAT must be configured on each gateway
B. Route-based VPNs replace domain-based VPNs
C. Route-based VPNs are a form of partial overlap VPN Domain
D. Packets are encrypted or decrypted automatically
E. Dynamic-routing protocols are not required
Answer: E

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NO.7 Assume you have a rule allowing HTTP traffic, on port 80, to a specific Web server in a
Demilitarized Zone (DMZ). If an external host port scans the Web server's IP address, what information
will be revealed?
A. Nothing; the NGX Security Server automatically block all port scans.
B. All ports are open on the Security Server.
C. All ports are open on the Web server.
D. The Web server's file structure is revealed.
E. Port 80 is open on the Web server.
Answer: E

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NO.8 VPN debugging information is written to which of the following files?
A. FWDIR/log/ahttpd.elg
B. FWDIR/log/fw.elg
C. $FWDIR/log/ike.elg
D. FWDIR/log/authd.elg
E. FWDIR/log/vpn.elg
Answer: C

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