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Exam Code: A2040-410
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Exam Code: C2020-012
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NO.1 Which statement is true regarding the Extension Library Tooltip control?
A. A developer is not allowed to place other data components in between the <xe:tooltip> start and
end tags.
B. To use the beforeContentLoad and afterContentLoad properties, a developer must set
dynamicContent to true.
C. When the position property is set to auto, the tooltip calculates where it should display in
relation to the element on the page.
D. To use the beforeContentLoad and afterContentLoad properties, a developer does need to set
dynamicContent to false.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which control, used to dynamically switch content, includes support to code the Dynamic
Content display using a Simple Action, client-side or server-side JavaScript?
A. Switch
B. Dynamic Content
C. Multi-image Output
D. Dynamic View Panel
Answer: B

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NO.3 Michael has designed a mobile application with two mobile pages. For the first mobile page he
set the pageName property to "page1" and for the second mobile page he set the pageName
property to "page2". What server-side simple action can Michael add on the second page to
navigate the mobile application user to the first page when touched?
A. Open Page
B. Open Mobile Page
C. Move To Mobile Page
D. Move To Application Page
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which three properties in the Dojo Text Box control are available in the Edit Box control?
(Choose three.)
A. alt
B. trim
C. lang
D. type
E. header
F. inputType
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.5 Which statement is true for the Single Page Application control for use on a mobile XPage?
A. The XML tag for the Single Page Application control is <xp:singlePageApp>.
B. The XML tag for the Single Page Application control is <xc:singlePageApplication>.
C. The Single Page Application control is used only when the mobile XPage includes a single mobile
page.
D. There must be only one Single Page Application control as the container for all of the Application
Page controls on the mobile XPage.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which is a valid named facet area of the Application Layout control?
A. footerFacet
B. titleBarTabs
C. mastHeader
D. mainContent
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which statement is true about the Application Layout control?
A. The Application Layout control provides a consistent interface when added directly to each XPage
in an application.
B. To render properly, the Application Layout control must implement one of the oneuiv2.1 themes
or a theme that extends a oneuiv2.1 theme.
C. The Application Layout control includes a total of three facet areas for adding content (left, center
and right columns) and three bar areas foricons, titles, links and drop down menus.
D. When the Application Layout control is enabled for an application each XPage will include a left,
center and right column area with the samedimensions to provide a consistent user interface across
the application.
Answer: B

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NO.8 John added a Dynamic View Panel to the CustomersViews XPage to switch display to any one
of several views in the Customers application. He set the pageName property to the
CustomerDocument XPage to identify the XPage to open when a customer name is selected from
the displayed view in the Dynamic View Panel control. What must John do to have the selected
customer document open in read mode on the CustomerDocument XPage?
A. For the Dynamic View Panel, set the openDocAsReadonly to "true".
B. Nothing. The selected document in a Dynamic View Panel will by default open in read mode.
C. For the Domino Document data source on the CustomerDocument XPage set the
openDocAsReadonly to "true".
D. Code the onColumnClick event of the Dynamic View Panel control with the Open Page simple
action and set the target property to"openDocument".
Answer: D

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NO.1 What are two instances when it is necessary to use the same lightweight third-party
authentication
keys? (Choose two.)
A. When using Single Sign-on
B. When users will be using different browsers
C. when users are located in different domains
D. When using Federated Repositories with LDAP
E. When more than one instance of WebSphere Application Server is installed on the same
computer
Answer: A,E

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NO.2 First Failure Data Capture (ffdc) logs contain what type of information?
A. event rule logs
B. eWAS stack dumps
C. database access logs
D. Tivoli Workload Scheduler ABEND information
Answer: B

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NO.3 Each branch of the company sends data on the last day of the month. When the data
has been received
a job stream should run. Which type of dependency is the most efficient solution for
controlling processing
of job streams?
A. file dependency
B. cross dependency
C. conditional dependency
D. internetwork dependency
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which statement is true about a dynamic pool?
A. A dynamic pool is hosted by a fault-tolerant agent.
B. A dynamic pool is hosted by a dynamic pool manager.
C. Standard Windows and UNIX/Linux jobs can run in a dynamic pool.
D. Updated dynamic pool options require a new plan to be generated before running jobs.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is a supported method for installing an IBM Tivoli WorMoad Scheduler V8.6
master domain
manager on UNIX or Linux?
A. twsinst
B. inst_twa.bin
C. twainstall.bin
D. launchpad.sh
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which setting can be modified in a remote engine workstation definition?
A. TYPE
B. HOST
C. NODE
D. AGENTID
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which file is used to configure an IBM Tivoli Workload Scheduler V8.6 dynamic
agent?
A. ita.ini
B. config.ini
C. localopts
D. globalopts
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which command defines the FINAL job stream in the database?
A. composer add Sfinal
B. composer load Sfinal
C. composer import Sfinal
D. composer include Sfinal
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C2180-276
Exam Name: IBM Business Process Manager Express or Standard Edition V8.0, BPM Application Development
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NO.1 A process owner of an insurance company requests to receive an email if the amount of a loan
is higher than $50,000. After creating the custom Key Performance Indicator (KPI) Amount (currency)
and associating it to the activity, how should the BPM application developer configure the
Assignment Setting to set the value of the KPI to the amount of the loan object? Uncheck "use KPI
defaults", and apply the following settings.
A. Assignment Type: Select Absolute Value Value: tw.local.loan.amount
B. Assignment Type: Select Absolute Value Value: tw.perf.value = tw.local.loan.amount
C. Assignment Type: Select custom JavaScript Value: tw.perf.value = tw.local.loan.amount
D. Assignment Type: Select custom JavaScript Value: tw.local.loan.amount
Answer: D

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NO.2 A BPM application developer needs to create custom SQL queries targeting the Business
Performance Data Warehouse to satisfy a customer's reporting requirements. While browsing the
system catalog of the database management system, the developer notices tables and views
corresponding to the tracking groups defined in the process application. Which database artifacts
should the developer query to obtain only the actively tracked data? The BPM application developer
should query the:
A. views, because the views contains more recent data than the tables.
B. views, because the views contain only the data resulting from the updated tracking definitions.
C. tables, because the tables contains more recent data than the views.
D. tables, because the tables contain only the data resulting from the updated tracking definitions.
Answer: B

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NO.3 A BPM application developer has completed the development of a process application. The
team lead has now directed the application developer to install the snapshot onto a staging server
for additional testing before it is moved into production. Assuming the default Process Server
settings are in place, what minimum level of access must the developer have in order to install the
snapshot onto the staging server? The application developer must have, at a minimum:
A. write access to the process application with no additional group membership.
B. write access to the process application and must be a member of the process-center-installgroup
as defined in the 100Custom.xml file.
C. administrative access to the process application with no additional group membership.
D. administrative access to the process application and must be a member of the
process-centerinstall-group as defined in the 100Custom.xml file.
Answer: A

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NO.4 A BPM application developer is developing a BPM solution in a process application called
'Auto Loan Review Process' (ALREV). ALREV has an existing dependency on a toolkit called 'Financial
Calculation Services' (FCSERV). The developer is asked to update an integration service in FCSERV
and use that new service in ALREV.
What steps must the developer take to ensure that ALREV will utilize the new service created in
FCSERV?
A. 1. Update the integration service in FCSERV
2.Take a snapshot of FCSERV
3.Update the dependency of ALREV from the FCSERV toolkit
B. 1. Update the integration service in FCSERV
2.Take a snapshot of FCSERV
3.Update dependency on FCSERV from the ALREV process application
C. 1. Create a new integration service in ALREV
2.Move the new integration service from ALREV to FCSERV
3.Take a snapshot of FCSERV
D. 1. Take a snapshot of FCSERV
2.Update the integration service in FCSERV
3.Update dependency on FCSERV in the ALREV process application
Answer: B

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NO.5 A BPM application developer is developing assets at a company with the following BPM
infrastructure:
A) One Process Center environment -The BPM application developer has all security privileges
required to access this environment
B) Three runtime environments- Test, Staging, and Production -Each runtime environment is a two
node, clustered environment -They are all configured as "online" environments -The BPM
application developer has all security privileges required to access those environments
The BPM application developer has all security privileges required to access those environments
The BPM application developer has all security privileges required to access those environments
The BPM application developer has been asked to create a Saved Search in each environment using
the Process Admin Console. How many times must the BPM application developer open a Process
Admin Console to make this change?
A. 1 time, since the Process Center environment's Process Admin console manages all online
environments
B. 2 times, once for the Process Center environment and once for the runtime environments
C. 4 times, since each environment has it's own Process Admin console
D. 7 times, since each node in each environment has its own Process Admin console
Answer: C

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NO.6 A BPM application developer has completed the development of a high profile process
application and is now ready to deploy the solution into the test environment. The application
developer has been told to allow one peer developer and the technical team lead to review and
approve the work before it can be installed onto the test server. The application developer's
manager has requested that the process of gathering these approvals be automated for auditing
purposes. What steps must the BPM application developer take in order to fulfill this requirement?
The BPM application developer must:
A. enable governance on the high profile process and use wsadmin to install the process.
B. create a business process definition, inside of the high profile process application, to implement
the approvals governance process.
C. ask a user with the administrative authority to create a System Governance toolkit dependency to
create a process application that will be used for governance.
D. ensure that there is a task in the governance process that will allow a designated person to install
the process, using Process Center, after all approvals have been received.
Answer: C

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NO.7 After deploying a snapshot onto the production server, the BPM application developer wants
to have two development versions of the process application, one for the resolution of issues that
needs to get fixed immediately in production and one for the development of new features. How
can the BPM application developer obtain the necessary development versions without creating a
new process application?
A. Create a new snapshot for the process application.
B. Create a clone of the snapshot installed in production.
C. Create a new track from the snapshot installed in production.
D. Import the snapshot installed in production into the Process Center.
Answer: C

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NO.8 The business owner of a purchasing process has requested a report that displays the total time
of three activities. What should the BPM application developer use to send the data to the
Performance Data Warehouse to create this report?
A. A Timing Interval
B. A Service Level Agreement
C. Exposed Process Variables
D. Shared Business Objects
Answer: A

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NO.1 Create a new event that fires when the Coupon Code event exists on hit, but the Coupon Code
Entry Value dimension value is "valid'.
Answer: C

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5. A business analyst has been assigned to evaluate the behavior of customers making multiple
attempts in a new registration process. Which event should be created?
A. An event that tracks abandonment from the first step.
B. An event that tracks failure at the registration submission.
C. An event that captures the distance between the start and completion in hits.
D. An event that fires when the required steps are present but not in the correct sequence.
Answer: C

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NO.2 An event modeler is tasked with creating a report that shows the percent of sessions with
failed searches. The event modeler creates a new event to record failed searches. What should be
chosen to track this event?
A. Every Hit
B. First per Session
C. Every Occurrence
D. First Hit of Session
Answer: B

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NO.3 An event modeler is tasked with creating an event that records the Referrer of each session to
identify where visitors to the site are coming from. When should this event be evaluated?
A. Every Step
B. End of Session
C. After Every Step
D. First Hit of Session
Answer: D

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NO.4 The marketing department asks the business analyst to track the number of customers who
continue through the checkout flowthree pages sequentially. The analyst already has an event
configured to fire for each of three respective pages. Which of the following would the analyst use?
A. A sequence event with the condition set as events A and C firing in order.
B. A sequence event with the condition set as events A, B and C firing in order.
C. A distance event with evaluator set as "Distance between events is between the following
number of seconds".
D. A sequence event with the evaluator set as "Distance between events is between the following
number of seconds".
Answer: B

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the number of payment errors per session. The event will be used as the value for the event used in
the report. The two events are Events A and B:
- Event A counts the number of payments errors per session.
- Event B will be created by the analyst to be used in a report. When should Event B fire?
A. Every Hit
B. After Every Hit
C. End of Session
D. After Every Step
Answer: C

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NO.6 How many Session Attributes can users define?
A. 24
B. 30
C. 64
D. Unlimited
Answer: C

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NO.7 An event modeler is tasked with creating a new hit attribute to capture the text displayed to
customers on the home page. The modeler is also asked to provide a report of the values generated.
The text value is displayed in a DIV tag on the home page called yCompanyDiv8?to provide a report
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A. Text Pattern
B. Step Pattern
C. Custom Tags
D. Start Tag/End Tag
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NO.8 An event modeler has created a new event that fires at the end of a session. Which would NOT
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A. A hit attribute
B. A session attribute
C. A distance event
D. A sequence event
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NO.1 Which two tasks can be performed through an Informix Grid? (Choose two.)
A. Install Informix products.
B. Start Informix servers in a grid.
C. Copy external files to grid servers.
D. Setup replication automatically in a grid.
E. Modify replication server attributes for grid servers.
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 Which of the following is NOT possible during a non-root Informix Server installation?
A. Role Separation
B. Create users and groups
C. Create a database server instance
D. Secure the Informix installation directory
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which two technologies use the ENCRYPT_MAC configuration parameter to control the level
of message authentication code (MAC) generation? (Choose two.)
A. On-disk encryption
B. Enterprise Replication
C. Column level encryption
D. High-Availability Data Replication
E. Server-to-server distributed query communication
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 Several operating-system kernel configuration parameters can affect the use of shared
memory by the database server. Which two kernel parameters may need to be configured? (Choose
two.)
A. Memory page size.
B. Total number of available semaphores.
C. Lower-boundary address for shared memory.
D. Total memory presented to the operating system.
E. Maximum operating-system shared-memory segment size.
Answer: C,E

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NO.5 When using the deployment assistant, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. A java environment must be configured.
B. The Informix user account must be used.
C. Chunks can be raw devices or buffered files.
D. The user must have connect permission to all databases.
E. The user must have connect privilege to sysadmin database.
Answer: A,E

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NO.6 Which feature can be enabled in Informix?
A. Automatic addition of a CPU VP .
B. Automatic addition of an ADM VP .
C. Automatic extension of storage spaces.
D. Automatic addition of message log files.
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the purpose of the ifx_getMartStat() function?
A. To display status information about the data mart.
B. To display update statistics information about the data mart and its tables.
C. To display statistics about the workers and coordinators defined for the accelerator.
D. To display status information about the Informix Warehouse Accelerator and all the data marts.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which ONCONFIG parameter would you use to disable the automatic creation or extension of
chunks?
A. SP_WAITTIME
B. SP_THRESHOLD
C. SP_AUTOEXPAND
D. SP_CHUNKEXTEND
Answer: C

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NO.1 How can cloud computing improve service delivery?
A. By providing monthly or pay per usage billing models
B. By abstracting underlying hardware using virtualization
C. By enabling service providers to provide multi-instance solutions
D. By automating processes used to request and provision workloads
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is a valid integration strategy to an existing IBM endpoint security solution when IBM
Tivoli Service Automation Manager (TSAM) is used to create an Infrastructure as a Service cloud?
A. TSAM interacts with the hypervisor to trigger the installation of end point management
capabilities in the cloud.
B. Install an agent using its software stack installation capability. The endpoint solution will handle
the rest of the interaction.
C. TSAM will provision an instance of the existing endpoint security solution so that the newly
provisioned virtual machines can be related to the endpoint management domain.
D. Define virtual machine templates that have the required software already installed. Then TSAM
will orchestrate the interaction between the virtual machines and the corresponding endpoint
security solution.
Answer: B

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NO.3 What are two reasons that cloud computing is a good runtime environment for Systems of
Engagement (SQE)? (Choose two.)
A. It is a secure environment to store credit card numbers.
B. Upfront capital investment is eliminated with cloud's pay per use billing.
C. Rapid resource scaling to respond to a sudden increase in engaged customers.
D. Cloud computing industry standards simplify integration between SOE and Systems of Record.
E. The automation provided by cloud computing is the foundation for a better customer
engagement.
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 Which capability must be in place in order for a failed VM to automatically be replaced and
users avoid disruptions in service?
A. VM optimization
B. Solid state drives
C. Dynamic dashboard
D. Availability management
Answer: D

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NO.5 In which delivery model does the cloud consumer have little or no control over the
implementation of services?
A. Platform as a Service
B. Software as a Service
C. Infrastructure as a Service
D. Business Process as a Service
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which cloud service model is most likely to use resource-based billing?
A. Platform as a Service
B. Software as a Service
C. Infrastructure as a Service
D. Business Process as a Service
Answer: C

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NO.7 How does provisioning take place in a hybrid cloud environment?
A. A rule-based workflow is usually in place which determines the best location for the workload.
B. Workloads are always provisioned on the public cloud when the private cloud is out of capacity.
C. Workloads can be provisioned anywhere as long as the monitoring data can be integrated in a
single dashboard.
D. Hybrid cloud environments have dedicated resource pools for provisioning storage and compute
for each workload.
Answer: A

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A. To describe how to build a virtualized data center infrastructure
B. To describe how to build an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) in a private cloud
C. To describe how to use a public IaaS from a data center
D. To describe how to prepare a data center to deliver IaaS and Platform as a Service cloud services
to consumer users
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which of the following Customizing settings is required to assign a notification to a
maintenance order operation?
A. Assignment of operations to all object list entries active
B. Assignment of order type to notification type
C. Maintain indicator for notification data on order header
D. Create default value profiles for general order data
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following is a function of deadline monitoring (transaction IP30)?
A. Generate a Logistics Information System (LIS) report for scheduled maintenance items within a
specific period.
B. Convert maintenance notifications into maintenance orders within a specific period.
C. Convert maintenance calls into call objects within a specific period.
D. Generate a Logistics Information System (LIS) report for all overdue maintenance calls.
Answer: C

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NO.3 When the user creates a maintenance plan for a call object (order), which value in the
planning data determines the order type?
A. Priority
B. Maintenance activity type
C. Maintenance planner group
D. Main work center
Answer: C

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NO.4 A maintenance technician replaces a defective counter with a new counter.
Before the users can create a standard measuring document for the new counter, what step(s) must
they perform?
A. Create a new technical object to represent the new measuring point.
B. Create a special measuring document and set the Counter Replacement indicator.
C. Dismantle the old measuring point and create a new measuring point.
D. Create a new measuring point and change the measuring point from which the measurement
reading was transferred.
Answer: B

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NO.5 A user has planned an operation with labor costs and material costs; however, the material
cost element is not assigned to a value category.
Where do the material costs appear in the value categories for the order?
A. In the overhead value category
B. In a new, automatically created value category
C. In the unassigned value category
D. In the internal activity value category
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which task list can have both external and internal number assignment for the task list group
number?
A. Bill of material task list
B. Equipment task list
C. General task list
D. Functional location task list
Answer: C

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NO.7 What information does the value category provide in the maintenance order?
A. The costs details for individual technical objects
B. The costs by work center
C. The material costs by valuation category
D. A summary of costs for multiple cost elements
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following are prerequisites for business completion?(Choose two)
A. The order must have actual costs.
B. The order must be fully settled.
C. The balance of the order must be zero.
D. The order must have planned costs.
Answer: B,C

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NO.1 On May 15, you try to process dunning for an account with an issue date of May 10.
Why does dunning fail to produce a result?
A. A dunning block which expired on May 13 was set on the contract account.
B. A dunning block which expired on May 13 was set on the business partner.
C. A dunning block which began on May 13 was set on the business partner.
D. A dunning block which began on May 13 was set on the contract account.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which criteria are used to group the underlying FICA documents for transfer to General Ledger
Accounting? (Choose three)
A. Creation date
B. Currency
C. Transaction
D. Segment
E. Company code
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.3 Which object can be used in monitoring (EL31) to view meter reading results?
A. Contract
B. Device location
C. Connection object
D. Contract account
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer moves in to a premise and requests electricity service starting on June 7.
According to the schedule records, the scheduled meter reading date is June 29, the scheduled
billing date is July 1, and the allocation date for billing is June 30.
Given that batch billing is executed every night with all portions included, what is the first day the
customer's contract could be billed?
A. July 1
B. June 30
C. June 7
D. June 29
Answer: A

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10. Which of the following must exist before an agent can create an automatic billing document?
A. Validated meter reading result
B. Posted payment
C. Billable billing order
D. Active budget billing plan
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the required technical master data for the SAP IS-U move-in?
A.Connection object
Installation
Premise
B.Contract account
Installation
Premise
C.Contract
Installation
Premise
D.Connection object
Installation
Device
Answer: A

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NO.6 You enter a meter reading manually and receive a message informing you that the reading
failed a relative tolerance validation.
What type of meter reading validation is this?
A. Meter reading control validation
B. Fixed validation
C. Independent validation
D. Dependent validation
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which processes can be directly called within the account display transaction? (Choose three)
A. Change contract
B. Display returns history
C. Mass change
D. Create budget billing plan
E. Display installation
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 A tariff requires that for the same contract account, the consumption from the water meter is
used to bill the water consumption charge and the waste water consumption charge.
How can the water meter be installed to meet this tariff requirement?
A. Technically installed to waste installation; billing installed to water installation
B. Fully installed to water installation; technically installed to waste water installation
C. Fully installed to water installation; billing installed to waste water installation
D. Technically installed to water installation; billing installed to waste water installation
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which of the following are characteristics of enterprise services?(Choose two)
A. They are based on global data types.
B. They are semantically harmonized across applications.
C. They can be easily used as imported archive objects.
D. They can be used to extend BAPIs.
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 Which Web-services-related protocol is supported by SAP NetWeaver PI 7.31?
A. Web Services Description Language (WSDL)
B. WS-Reliable Messaging (WS-RM)
C. Representational state transfer (REST)
D. Open Data Protocol (OData)
Answer: B

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NO.3 The Advanced Adapter Engine is installed as a component on the Integration Server.
When would you install the non-central Advanced Adapter Engine?
A. When a firewall between the business system and the Integration Server prevents them from
communicating directly
B. When the business department requires Knowledge Management on a separate system
C. When you want to use cross-component business process management (ccBPM) in the Advanced
Adapter Engine
D. When you want to use the advanced monitoring capabilities of the Integration Engine
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following SAP NetWeaver components use Enterprise Services
Repository?(Choose two)
A. SAP NetWeaver Business Warehouse
B. SAP NetWeaver Portal
C. SAP NetWeaver Process Integration
D. SAP NetWeaver Mobile
E. SAP NetWeaver Developer Studio
Answer: C,E

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NO.5 Which conversion parameters are available in the SOAP adapter?(Choose two)
A. Keep Headers
B. Do Not Use SOAP Envelope
C. Sync/Async Bridge
D. File Content Conversion
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 What is the purpose of the standard SplitByValue function?
A. To split the payload
B. To replicate a value of a field that occurs once
C. To insert context changes into a queue
D. To split a string into substrings
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which step types can be used as the first step in an integration process?
A. Block
B. Receive
C. Wait
D. Send
Answer: B

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NO.8 In which cases do you need to use ccBPM processes?(Choose two)
A. When collecting messages
B. When querying databases
C. When using a synchronous/asynchronous bridge
D. When using scenarios that are based on an AEX installation
Answer: A,C

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Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Professional - HCM Talent Management with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP4
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Exam Code: C-SRM-72
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NO.1 HR wants to monitor the maintenance of Personal Development (PD) master data.
Which methods are available to audit this?(Choose two)
A. Program RPUAUD00 for logged changes to standard infotypes 0001-0999.
B. Log of report starts accessing logical database PCH.
C. Log of report starts accessing logical database PNP .
D. Transaction PPOME for organization structure changes.
E. Program RHDOC_DISPLAY for logged changes to standard infotypes 1000-1999.
Answer: D,E

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NO.2 After having set up structural authorizations, your customer is experiencing slow system
response times.
How can you improve system response times?
A. Delete all entries of structural authorization indexes and recreate each structural authorization
profile.
B. Generate indexes for users assigned to these structural authorizations using RHBAUS00.
C. Increase database storage capacity to better process the complex indexing associated with
building and maintaining structural authorizations.
D. Reduce the number of structural authorization profiles to allow fewer users access to the
structural authorization objects.
Answer: B

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NO.3 An organization has the need to reduce their headcount. Therefore they need to identify jobs
and positions that have to be retained based on critical business processes.
How can you determine what jobs and positions are critical?
A. Execute Complete Job Description (S_AHR_61016501) from Organizational Management Info
System.
B. Execute Infotype Reporting (S_AHR_61016532) from Organizational Management Info System
using Spec. Position Characteristics (infotype 1958).
C. Execute Profile Matchup (PEPM) from Personnel Development Info System.
D. Execute Complete Position Description (S_AHR_61016511) from Organizational
Management Info System.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which action is required for using structural authorizations?
A. Configure and run the profile generator.
B. Implement the organizational key.
C. Create and activate authorization objects.
D. Assign authorization profiles to users.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which areas are used by HCM Processes and Forms?(Choose two)
A. SAP Employee Interaction Center (EIC)
B. SAP Interactive Forms
C. SAP Business Workflow
D. SAP Network Process Integration (PI)
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 A customer would like to have a batch process to automate the update of the Appraiser (new
manager) on the review form based on employees' transfer. Therefore, a custom program must be
developed.
Which functionality should be implemented in a custom program to meet this requirement?
A. Update Organizational Unit assignment on the incomplete appraisal form of the transferred
employees.
B. Update Appraiser assignment on the incomplete appraisal form of the transferred employees.
C. Release new appraisal form for the transferred employees with the new Organizational Unit
assignment.
D. Release new appraisal form for the transferred employees with the new manager assigned as
Appraiser.
Answer: B

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NO.7 The Recruiter is searching for candidates using TREX search, but the system does not return
any results.
How do you test the TREX search function?(Choose two)
A. Check the free text search and the Boolean search in the E-Recruiting frontend.
B. Execute transaction KRPO IMS: Monitoring (SKPR07).
C. Execute transaction Retrieval: Search Server Relation Monitor (SRMO).
D. Check the free text search and the Boolean search in the E-Recruiting backend.
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 Your customer has implemented SAP Learning Solution (LSO) with Enhancement Pack 4,
Organizational Management (OM) and Performance Management (PM) and requires that the
managers are able to assign courses to their team member's performance appraisal document.
How do you provide this functionality?
A. Configure the integration of the performance appraisal template with the course catalogue.
B. Install the business package HCM_LSO_VLR and set up the parameter for the Add Course from
LSO BAdI.
C. Configure the performance appraisal template using the ORG_PM_APPR and add course to PM
Template BAdI.
D. Set up custom evaluation path and mandatory relationships to assign trainings to employees via
selected organizational units.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: C_SRM_72
Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - Supplier Relationship Management 7.2
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NO.1 What option in Import Manager is used to map 1 source field to multiple destination fields?
A. Compounding
B. Adding
C. Cloning
D. Renaming
Answer: C

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NO.2 Your customer is implementing SRM 7.2 with ECC 6.0 EhP4. What will be required in their
system landscape to create Central Contracts in SRM?
A. SRM-MDM Catalog
B. SAP NetWeaver PI
C. SAP E-Sourcing
D. SAP CLM (Contract Lifecycle Management)
Answer: B

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7. What do you need to consider when replicating master data from SAP ERP to SAP SRM?
A. Customizing objects must be replicated before business objects.
B. Materials and service masters replicated from ERP use the same product type in SRM.
C. IDocs are used to replicate materials from ERP .
D. Units of Measure (UoM) cannot be replicated from ERP using CRM Middleware.
Answer: A

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8. Which of the following are OCI outbound parameters? (Choose two)
A. Logical system
B. URL
C. Business Partner
D. User name
Answer: B,D

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9. Which attribute within the organizational plan specifies the backend system where the
account assignment data is checked?
A. System alias for accounting systems
B. System alias for logical system
C. System alias
D. System alias for vendor
Answer: A

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10. In order to distribute the workload of purchasers, SRM offers the so called automatic
assignment. In this context, which of the following are true?
A. Automatic assignment can be done for External requirements, Purchase Orders or Contracts.
B. The BADI BBP_PFRP_ASSIGN_BADI is used to define rules.
C. Documents can be assigned to purchasing groups that are themselves assigned to different
purchasing organizations
D. One purchase requisition can have multiple lines, each of which is assigned to a different
purchasing group.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 Which step allows the ALE distribution model to be visible on the receiver system?
A. Creation of the model
B. Distribution of the model
C. Generation of the partner profile on the SRM server
D. Generation of the partner profile on the ERP system
Answer: B

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NO.4 In which implementation are product categories replicated without CRM middleware?
A. SRM 7.2 and ERP 6.0 on one client using classic scenario
B. SRM 7.2 and ERP 6.0 on separate clients using extended classic scenario
C. SRM 7.2 and ERP 6.0 on separate clients using classic scenario
D. SRM 7.2 and ERP 6.0 on one client using extended classic scenario
Answer: A

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NO.5 What controls the transfer of shopping cart follow-on documents from the SRM server to the
backend system?
A. Driver
B. IDoc
C. Dispatcher
D. Spooler
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which master data is maintained in the SRM system?
A. Business partners
B. Cost centers
C. Purchasing info records
D. Asset master data
Answer: A

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