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Exam Code: HP2-E45
Exam Name: HP Technical Introduction to the HP SMB Portfolio HP2-E45
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-30

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NO.1 Which description fits the IT staff at a typical SMB?
A. a handful of generalists
B. one owner who assumes all roles
C. outsourced support staff and contractors
D. dedicated administrators for each aspect of the infrastructure
Answer: A

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Reference:http://wtnnews.com/articles/9140/(second paragraph)

NO.2 Which characteristics are typical of lower-tier medium businesses? (Select two.)
A. prefer appliance-type solutions
B. have between 10 and 15 servers
C. have anywhere from zero to five full-time IT staff members
D. prefer customized bundles of hardware, software, and services
E. have a high percentage of employees who are Internet- or email-enabled all the time
Answer: A,E

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NO.3 You are analyzing a customer's system in order to determine its hardware availability
requirements. Which attributes of the system should you consider? (Select two)
A. repair response time
B. the need for multiprocessing
C. processor speed
D. length of the average transaction
E. reliability
Answer: B,E

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NO.4 What must you determine first in order to select a server platform that meets customer needs?
A. the number and type of applications the customer is running
B. how many clients are networked
C. how many simultaneous users are present and anticipated
D. which applications are l/O-intensive and which are bandwidth-intensive
Answer: A

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NO.5 HP provides simple, affordable, and reliable ways for SMB customers to build and run their
business. What is an example of this strategy?
A. The HP SMB Servers program provides SMBs with scalable storage, data protection, and disaster
recovery solutions that suit a wide range of needs
B. ProLiant servers make it easy to integrate the heterogeneous environments often found in an
SMB environment
C. ProLiant servers, along with VMware ESX Server 3i capabilities, make it attractive for small
businesses to transition to a managed environment
D. Because SMBs favor standalone solutions. HP positions its hardware, software, networking, and
services offerings accordingly
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www.serverwatch.com/trends/article.php/ 3937696 /HP-ProLiant-Servers-Buyers-G
uide.htm

NO.6 Which factor is typically the most important for SMBs when considering a technology
purchase?
A. scalability
B. mobility
C. reliability
D. database management
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which two IT priorities are typically the most important for SMB customers? (Select two.)
A. business continuity
B. cloud services
C. failover capability
D. security
E. redundancy
Answer: B,D

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Reference:http://www.netstandard.com/top-smb-it-priorities-for-2012-cloud-security-and-mobileso
lutions/(4thand5thparagraph)

NO.8 Which statements did a Gartner study find to be true about SMBs? (Select two.)
A. The majority of SMB servers are x86 architecture, with single-core or dual-core processor
installations.
B. SMBs tend to run on Linux, HP-UX. and Microsoft operating systems, in nearly equal numbers
C. Approximately two-thirds of SMBs have external RAID
D. Storage area network (SAN) penetration for small businesses is about 80%.
E. On average, small businesses deploy 1 to 4 servers, while medium businesses deploy 19 to 22
servers.
Answer: A,D

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Exam Code: HP2-E52
Exam Name: HP Selling HP Cloudsystem and Converged Infrastructure Solutions Delta Exam HP2-E52
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-30

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NO.1 According to a research study conducted by IDC, it takes IT organizations more than 20 days to deploy
a new application in a traditional environment. How long does deploying a converged infrastructure
solution take?
A. less than 5 days
B. less than6days
C. less than 15 days
D. less than 20 days
Answer: B

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NO.2 Why would a customer need cloud-bursting options?
A. to enable them to automatically access additional services when private resources have been fully
used
B. to meet big data demands and maximize data reliability and security
C. to allow additional users to access a particular service
D. to ensure resources can be effectively used and reallocated without human intervention
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which HP solution allows customers to deploy turnkey private and public clouds with full cloud service
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A. HPAppSystem
B. HP CloudSystem Enterprise
C. HP BladeSystem
D. HPVirtualSystem
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is a drawback of having a high number of legacy applications in rigid siloes on separate
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A. It is difficult for IT to perform system maintenance task with business users.
B. It is difficult for IT to maintain service level agreements and keep up with the speed of business.
C. It is difficult for IT to provide accurate assessments of the server and storage requirements and
manage software updates.
D. It is difficult for IT to predict resource requirements on a three-year rolling plan.
Answer: C

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NO.5 HP CloudSystem Enterprise lets your customers substantially increase organizational agility, enabling
them to rapidly respond to changing demands. What is one of the key benefits of this?
A. They are able to increase storage utilization and reduce the overall administration burden.
B. They reduce the amount of network bandwidth needed to deploy new services.
C. They gain the ability to virtualize existing environments and increase operations and administration
efficiency.
D. They gain the ability to scale and flex capacity in seconds, not hours, days or weeks.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-Y43
Exam Name: HP Implementing HP Network Infrastructure Solutions Exam HP0-Y43
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Updated: 2013-08-30

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NO.1 A company has a service level agreement (SLA) with its service provider. The SLA specifies a 2 Mbps
committed information rate (CIR) and 20 KB committed burst size (CBS). Lately, during peak usage times,
the company has been experiencing brief periods of poor performance on its external connection
(GigabitEthernet port 2/0/1 on an HP 5800 switch).
How can the network administrator configure the Comware switch to address this problem?
A. Configure a traffic classifier that selects all traffic and a car traffic behavior that sets the CIR to 2 Mbps
and the CBS to 20 KB. Create a QoS policy that maps the classifier to the action and apply this policy as
an inbound policy on port GigabitEthernet 2/0/1.
B. Enable Strict Priority (SP) scheduling on port GigabitEthernet 2/0/1 and ensure that all inbound traffic is
marked with the correct priority.
C. Configure generic traffic shaping (GTS) on the GigabitEthernet port 2/0/1, setting the CIR to 2 Mbps
and the CBS to 20 KB.
D. Configure a traffic classifier that selects all traffic and a car traffic behavior that sets the CIR to 2 Mbps
and the CBS to 20 KB. Create a OoS policy that maps the classifier to the action and apply this policy as
an outbound policy on port GigabitEthernet 2/0/1.
Answer: C

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NO.2 How can a high density of ports and high throughput at the core of an HP FlexNetwork save customers
money?
A. Intelligence is offloaded from the edge switches, enabling customers to save money on the most
numerous switches in their solutions.
B. The customer can combine the data center and campus LAN core into a single entity, reducing power
and cooling costs.
C. The customer no longer needs to deploy modular switches at the distribution level and the edge,
deploying more cost-effective stackable switches instead.
D. The architecture can be simplified, eliminating expensive distribution devices and reducing power and
cooling costs.
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the role of neighbor solicitation (NS) messages in the autoconfiguration of an IPv6 address.?
A. An IPv6 node sends an NS message to inform a node undergoing autoconfiguration that it is already
using a particular address.
B. An IPv6 node sends an NS message for its tentative address to determine whether another node is
using it.
C. An IPv6 node sends an NS message for the global prefix to prompt other IPv6 nodes to advertise the
addresses that they are using on that prefix.
D. An IPv6 node sends an NS message to prompt an IPv6 router on the link to advertise the global
prefixes associated with the link immediately.
Answer: B

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NO.4 View the exhibits.
Exhibit 1
The frame has these characteristics:
-VLANID = 3
-802.1p = 3
-DSCP=32
-Source IP address = 10.1.1.5
Click here for Exhibit 2
The frame shown in Exhibit 1 arrives on an HP 5800 switch's GigabitEthernet port 1/0/1. QoS maps are at
their default settings. Based on the configuration shown in Exhibit 2, to which queue is the outbound
packet assigned?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which switch is best suited to act at the edge of a medium to large HP FlexFabric solution?
A. 10500
B. 5500
C. 9500
D. 5830
Answer: D

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NO.6 View the exhibit.
The exhibit shows a network with HP 5400 zl and 8200 zl switches throughout the core and edge. What is
one advantage of implementing routing on edge switches?
A. Typically, it is easier to implement user-based VLAN assignments.
B. The topology has higher redundancy because edge switches can take over routing roles when
necessary.
C. Typically, the network can use fewer total VLANs when edge switches implement routing.
D. Typically, it is easier to ensure that routed links between edge and core switches are fully utilized.
Answer: D

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NO.7 A network includes a mix of IGMPv2 and IGMPv3 endpoints and must support the following source
specific multicasting applications:
-Source: 10.1.4.2 and Group: 232.0.5.5
-Source: 10.1.4.12 and Group 232.0.6.6
The network is already implementing PIM-SM and IGMPv3. In order to support these applications, the HP
10500 switches that act as routers for the endpoints in question must support another feature. Which step
must the network administrator perform on each of these switches?
A. Create an SSM policy that includes 232.0.5.5 and 232.0.6.6 within its range
B. Enable IGMPv2 backward compatibility mode
C. Configure two SSM maps, each of which mapsa source to its multicast group
D. Enable PIM SSM on the interfaces that connect to the endpoints
Answer: C

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NO.8 A customer requires an HP FlexCampus solution with a core that scales to 40/100G. Which HP switch
fabric meets this need?
A. the 7500's CLOS switch fabric
B. the 10500's CLOS switch fabric
C. the 7500's crossbar switch fabric
D. the 10500's crossbar switch fabric
Answer: B

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NO.9 View the exhibit.
A network administrator wants to configure an HP 5800 switch to place all incoming traffic on the
GigabitEthernet 1/0/1 port in priority queue 3. However, one exception applies. All traffic incoming on that
port that is destined to UDP port 55555 should be forwarded in priority queue 4 and marked with DSCP
32.
Based on the current configurations shown in the exhibit, which further steps must the network
administrator perform? (Select two.)
A. Configure port GigabitEthernet 1>0/1 to trust DSCP
B. Apply QoS policy Policy1 as on inbound policyon port GigabitEthernet 1/0/l
C. Apply QoS policy Policy2 as on inbound policyon port GigabitEthernet 1/0/1
D. Create a OoS Ip-dscp mapthat maps Ip value 4 to DSCP02
E. Undo OoS trust on port GigabitEthernet 1/0/1
Answer: B,E

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NO.10 A company has a network that includes HP 5800 and 12500 switches. Usage demands on the
company's FTP servers have increased, causing performance issues during peak usage times. While
analyzing link utilization, the network administrator noticed that the most heavily utilized links experience
bursts of congestion, causing them to drop traffic. The links then experience brief periods of low utilization
followed by another burst of congestion. This pattern continues periodically throughout the peak utilization
time.
What should the network administrator do to attempt to create a more efficient traffic pattern on these
links?
A. Configure an outbound traffic policing policy on the ports in question, setting the CIR at about sixty
percent of the ports' capacity and the PIR at about eighty percent.
B. Apply Weighted Fair Queuing (WFQ) or Weighted Round Robin (WRR) scheduling in preference to
Strict Priority (SP) scheduling on the ports in question.
C. Configure inbound traffic policing policies on ports at the core, setting the CIR at about sixty percent of
the ports' capacity and the PIR at about eighty percent. Apply outbound generic traffic shaping (GTS) on
ports facing the core ports, setting the CIR equal to the CIR on the core ports.
D. Apply a WRED table to the ports in question, optionally adjusting the table values to drop lower priority
traffic first.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-E53
Exam Name: HP Selling HP Enterprise Solutions Exam HP2-E53
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-30

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NO.1 According to research by Burson-Marsteller, what is the key approach to resolving the issue that there is
a huge gap between the need for business agility and the current agility of businesses?
A.Deploy a Business Intelligence system.
B.Design and build an Enterprise Data Warehouse.
C.Initiate a technology infrastructure transformation.
D.Initiate an information lifecycle management project.
Answer: D

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NO.2 According to Gartner, what percentage of enterprises will be pursuing a private cloud strategy by 2014?
A.56%
B.66%
C.76%
D.86%
Answer: C

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NO.3 Why are customers struggling to manage their IT infrastructures with more than 70% of their resources
being trapped in operations, problem resolution, and maintenance activities?
A.Service and Help-Desk calls are consuming an ever-increasing amount of time to resolve by server and
storage administrators.
B.Demands from business users are on the increase, leading to a long list of projects that need to be
completed.
C.Multi-vendor solutions require increased management time, and IT resources are stretched to the limits.
D.A high degree of legacy and current applications are in rigid siloes on separate infrastructure islands.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which HP system can be upgraded to a full HP CloudSystem?
A.HP CloudSystem VS1
B.HP DL980
C.HP VirtualSystem MC1
D.HP VirtualSystem VS2
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which statement best describes the HP VirtualSystem?
A.HP VirtualSystem enables IT departments to manage based on perceived activity, where computer
processing power is seen as a utility that users can pay for only as needed.
B.HP VirtualSystem enables several operating systems to be run in parallel on a single CPU to reduce
overhead costs.
C.HP VirtualSystem optimizes dedicated workloads such as data management, business
reporting/analytics, and collaboration.
D.HP VirtualSystem simplifies and extends converged infrastructure into optimized, turnkey solutions that
reduce costs for server and desktop virtualization.
Answer: D

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NO.6 How do HP VirtualSystems increase deal size?
A.They include high value software components.
B.They move the deal to strategic virtualization solutions and services.
C.They require more processor blades than conventional systems.
D.They require larger storage systems than conventional architectures.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which HP storage solution is used in the HP VirtualSystem VS2?
A.HP P4800 Lefthand
B.HP P6000 EVA
C.HP P8500 XP
D.HPP10000 3PAR
Answer: A

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NO.8 According to IDC research, how much does the time to deploy a new service improve in moving from
Compartmentalized to Adaptive?
A.from 10 days to 2 days
B.from 20 days to 5 days
C.from 40 days to 10 days
D.from 60 days to 20days
Answer: B

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NO.9 Your customer is currently taking approximately 20 days to deploy new applications within their
traditional IT environment. You are aware that recent industry research shows that implementing a
Converged Infrastructure could significantly reduce deployment times. If your customer used Converged
Infrastructure solutions, what could be their new deployment timeframe?
A.5 days
B.8 days
C.12 days
D.17 days
Answer: A

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NO.10 According to the 2011 VMware channel survey, how much was spent on hardware and services for
every $1 spent on virtualization software?
A.$8
B.$10
C.$12
D.$14
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-S36
Exam Name: HP Archecting HP Server Solutions HP0-S36
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-30

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NO.1 Which technology allows multiple Fibre Channel initiators to share a single physical port?
A. Port-based SAN Zoning
B. Link Aggregation Control Protocol
C. N-Port ID Virtualization
D. Auto Port Aggregation
Answer: C

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NO.2 After sizing a rack with several ProLiant DL380p Gen8 servers running Windows Server 2008
R2
to use a redundant UPS Solution, a customer orders two HP UPS R7000s. What needs to be
done to get this UPS configuration working as a redundant UPS solution and gracefully shutdown
Windows Server 2008 R2 when a power failure occurs at the input feed of both R7000 UPSs?
A. Configure the HP UPS Network Module for each R7000 UPS and HP Power Proactive software
B. Configure the HP UPS Management Card for each R7000 UPS and HP power proactive
software
C. Configure the HP UPS Management Card for each R7000 UPS and HP Power manager
software
D. Configure the HP UPS Network Module for each R7000 UPS and HP Power manager software
Answer: D

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NO.3 A customer purchased HP Intelligent Distribution Units (iPUDS) and wants to use intelligent
Power
Discovery. What is required for their current DL380 G7 services to work with this solution?
A. Common Slot-48VDC Plug Supply Kit
B. Common slot Platform Hot Plug Power Supply Kit for each server
C. An upgrade to an HP ProLiant Gen8
D. Common Slot Gold Hot Plug Supply Kit for each server
Answer: B

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NO.4 When an HP ProLiant BL460c Generation 8 server is configured with a FlexNIC, the PCI-e
devices’ port speeds can be set using increments of which size?
A. 1 GB
B. 10 GB
C. 100 MB
D. 10 MB
Answer: C

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NO.5 You are planning the new environment for a customer server consolidation project. Which tool
properly sizes the hypervisor environment and creates a Bill of Materials (BOM)?
A. HP ProLiant server sizer for ESX Server
B. HP Insight Software Sizer
C. HP Smart Solution Designer
D. HP Sizer for Citrix XenDesktop
Answer: A

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NO.6 You are creating an offer for a mixed BladeSystem and rack Mount environment. Which tool
can
be used to perform a complete power sizing for this solution?
A. HP Power manager
B. HP power Advisor
C. HP BladeSystem power Sizer
D. HP iPDU Configurator
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-Y44
Exam Name: HP Implementing and Troubleshooting HP Wireless Networks HP0-Y44
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Updated: 2013-08-30

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NO.1 Which TAP method requires the supplicant and the authentication server to mutually
authenticate
with digital certification?
A. EAP-SIM
B. EAR-TLS
C. AP-TTTS
D. EAP-PEAP
Answer: D

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NO.2 A network administrator is configuring a VSC that enforces WPA2 with preshared keys (PSK) on
an HP Controller. The VSC must support Voice over IP (VoIP) applications, so the network
administrator enables opportunistic key caching to support fast roaming. When the network
administrator saves the VSC settings, an error indicates 802.1X is required.
How should the network administrator resolve this error?
A. By purchasing a premium mobility license for the controller, which will allow the controller to
support opportunistic key cashing with 802.1X.
B. By enabling 802.1X but leaving in WPA2 key source set to static so that both forms of
authentication are supported.
C. By enabling wireless mobility as an authentication method for meeting the fast roaming
requirements.
D. By enabling opportunistic key caching: this feature is not required for fast roaming in a VSC
such as this.
Answer: B

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NO.3 How do HP MSM products, which support the optimized WLAN architecture, forward client
traffic
onto the wired network?
A. The APs can forward traffic for the some VSCs directly onto the wired network, but forward
traffic tunneled or access-controlled VSCs to the controller.
B. The controller always forwards traffic onto the wired network, thereby simplifying management
and improving security.
C. While an individual AP must either forward all traffic locally or forward all traffic to the controller,
different APs can exhibit different behaviors based on the needs of the company.
D. The APs always forward traffic directly onto the wired network, thereby optimizing the traffic
flow.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which statement accurately describes 802 11i Mixed Mode?
A. The AP sends all stations a TKIP group key.
B. The AP sends all stations both a TKIP and an AES group key.
C. The AP sends stations using TKIP a TKIP group key and stations using AES an AES group key
D. The AP sends all stations an AES group key
Answer: D

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NO.5 A company wants to increase its security by adding its security by adding a wireless intrusion
detection system/intrusion prevention system (IDS/IPS), which could detect rogue APs and Wi-Fi
Protected Access (WPA) attacks. Which product would provide this extra layer of security?
A. HP Threat management Services z1 Module
B. HP RF Manager
C. HP TippingPoint IPS Platform
D. HP Intelligent management Center (IMC) with Endpoint Admission Defense (EAD)
Answer: B

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Exam Code: P11-101
Exam Name: PayPal PayPal Certified Developer: Payments P11-101
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Updated: 2013-08-29

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NO.1 You want to hard set the shipping in the HTML code for your non-hosted cleartext PayPal add-tocart
button to $0.99 for an item and each additional quantity of the same item.
Which two of the following variables could you use?
A. item_shipping_1
B. item_shipping_2
C. ship_amt_1
D. ship_amt_2
E. shipping
F. shipping2
Answer: E,F

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NO.2 Which of the following payment methods does not directly use funds from a customer bank account?
A. ACH
B. Credit card
C. Debit card
D. eCheck
Answer: B

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NO.3 When using Express Checkout, what is the proper URL to use to direct the customer to PayPa after a
successful SetExpressCheckout API call.?
A. https://www.pavpal.com/webscr?token=
B. https://vw/w.pavpal.com/cqi-bin/webscr?token=
C. https://www.paypal.com/expresscheckout?token=
D. https://www.paypal.com/webscr?cmd=_express-checkout&token=
Answer: D

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NO.4 What does "authorization" mean in the context of credit card processing?
A. Process of collecting a payment from a customer's credit card
B. Process of obtaining customer's consent for payment
C. Verification of availability of funds from customer's credit card
D. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.5 When setting the value for the variable cmd. which of the following is not a valid value?
A. _cart
B. _xclick
C. _xclick-auto-billing
D. _xclick-donations
E. _xclick-subscriptions
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which three are true about eCheck?
A. The sender's PayPal account contains one or more bank accounts but no linked credit card.
B. A payment is still an eCheck even though the sender has enough PayPal balance in his/her account.
C. An eCheck payment cannot be refunded with the Refund API of Adaptive Payments.
D. Sender and primary receiver of a chained payment cannot use eCheck.
E. Funding of an eCheck is not available right away in the receiver's account, since PayPal needs to wait
for the sender's bank to clear it first.
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.7 When creating a subscription button, what variable sets the subscription to reattempt a failed recurring
payment before canceling it?
A. sra
B. src
C. srf
D. srr
E. srt
Answer: A

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NO.8 When executing a DoCapture API call, what value should you pass as the authorization ID parameter?
A. authorizationId=<correlationId>
B. authorizationId=<authorizationId>
C. authorizationId=<orderId>
D. authorizationId=<transactionId>
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is the correct sequence of these operations for executing an Instant Update API call?
1. POST shipping options to PayPal
2. Extract shipping address token from Instant Update message
3. API call to postal carrier to calculate rate based on shipping address
4. Call GetExpressCheckoutDetails to obtain buyer's shipping options
A. 2, 4, 3, 1
B. 4, 1, 2, 3
C. 4.2, 3, 1
D. 2, 3, 1, 4
Answer: D

PayPal   P11-101   P11-101   P11-101

NO.10 If a Business account does not have Website Payments Pro, which of the following API methods is not
available for use?
A. DoExpressCheckoutPayment
B. TransactionSearch
C. GetTransactionDetails
D. DoDirectPayment
E. RefundTransaction
Answer: D

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NO.11 Sam uses Adaptive Payments' Pay API to set up payments so he is the API caller. He would like to allow
"guest payment" ("guest checkout"): that is, the payer does not have to have a PayPal account but can
make the payment using a credit card. To achieve that which two of the following should Sam make sure
of?
A. He should use himself as the primary receiver if it is a chained payment.
B. All receivers of a guest payment need to be either Premier or Business verified PayPal accounts.
C. He should not specify the sender's email in the Pay API call that sets up the payment.
D. He should not use embedded payment flow for Adaptive Payments since guest checkout function is
not available in it.
E. He should store the payer's credit card information in his site/application.
Answer: B,C

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NO.12 When using the Instant Update/Callback API with Express Checkout, which three of the following are
valid variables that need to be passed over in the SetExpressCheckout API call?
A. CALLBACK
B. CALLBACKPAGE
C. CALLBACKTIMEOUT
D. CALLBACKVERSION
E. CALLBACKMETHOD
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.13 What is Instant Payment Notification (IPN)?
A. An email notification feature within a PayPal account
B. A server side POST of transaction data
C. A text message notification feature within a PayPal account
D. Transaction data returned through the get string on website return
Answer: B

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NO.14 When the data passed back to PayPal to check on its authenticity through IPN is not the same as the
data sent from PayPal you get a response of a single word. What word is that?
A. UNCONFIRMED
B. UNILATERAL
C. INVALID
D. FAIL
E. UNVERIFIED
Answer: C

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NO.15 When you (as a developer, using your own API credentials) are running Express Checkout API calls
on behalf of a merchant what variable can you use to pass the merchant's PayPal account email address
so that the payment is associated with the merchant's account?
A. EMAIL
B. MERCHANTID
C. SELLEREMAIL
D. SUBJECT
Answer: D

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