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Exam Code: M2150-225
Exam Name: IBM Tivoli Internet Security Systems Sales Mastery Test v2 (000-M225)
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NO.1 A client is concerned about the number of security agents currently supported on its
desktop
image.What should the Systems Engineer discuss?
A.How IBM Security Network Intrusion Prevention System appliances reduce the risk of
infection
or breach and mitigate the need for most security agents on the desktops.
B.How completing a data classification study allows IBM to help the client understand where
its
data security risks reside
C.How the IBM Security Tivoli Endpoint Manager strategy will provide the client with one
framework for host management and security.
D.How Enterprise Scanner can automate vulnerability assessment and reduce the number of
endpoint security agents currently used
Answer: C

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NO.2 Based upon discussions with several different vendors, a client has requested an
Intrusion
Prevention System (IPS) competitive evaluation What action should the seller take?
A.Request that IBM Global Finance deliver evaluation equipment to the client
B.Complete the evaluation agreement form, and deliver the equipment to the client for testing
C.Provide the client with a tour of a Global Security Operations Center to showcase the
capabilities of IBM security products
D.Work with a Systems Engineer to schedule delivery and implementation of the evaluation
product in the client's environment.
Answer: D

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NO.3 A potential client recently acquired a competitor organization and is considering
infrastructure
consolidation.The person responsible for this project is new to the role and needs advice on
how
to start the process
What action should the seller take?
A.Meet with the client and Systems Engineer to discuss options and help design the new
architecture.
B.Send the client some case studies from PartnerWorld showing similar requirements.
C.Send the client the latest solutions guide that describes the best use and deployment of
IBMSecurityappliances
D.Schedule a meeting with the technical staff from both organizations to gain an
understanding of
the existing architecture.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following is the best way to educate a potential client on the full range of
IBM security
solutions and win the account?
A.Send the client the latest Gartner report showing IBM Security in the magic quadrant along
with
McAfee, Symantec, and SourceFire.
B.Show the client a reference from a client in the same industry
C.Recommend another vendor in the portfolio that may be able to meet the client
requirements.
D.Arrange a workshop in partnership with IBM Security to demonstrate IBM Security's X-
Force
and strong solutions
Answer: D

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NO.5 IBM Security positions its products as being "ahead of the threat-How is this achieved?
A.By relying on regular signature updates.
B.By not disclosing vulnerabilities until a patch is available for products.
C.By not relying on signature updates and utilizing heuristics.
D.By taking feeds from the global Managed Security Services operation and providing
updates in
real time.
Answer: C

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NO.6 How does IBM Security offer end-to-end security today?
A.Continually looks for product updates and enhancements and actively works with the
Research
& Development community.
B.Evaluates gaps in the IBM Security Framework and acquires the appropriate security
vendors
C.Offers a free Security Health Scan to any client.
D.Provides the industry's broadest information security training and certification courses.
Answer: A

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NO.7 An IBM Business Partner is planning a security event for several regional clients in the
retail
industry.Which actions should an IBM Business Partner take?
A.Research Partner World for industry specific marketing collateral.
B.Engage Techline to develop presentation content and help pay for a local venue.
C.Ask IBM to send out invitations to their clients
D.Engage their IBM Security Representative and request support from Channel Marketing to
obtain a reputable industry security speaker for the event and to help with invitations,
presentation
content, and logistics
Answer: D

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NO.8 A client has deployed SourceFire Intrusion Prevention System appliances but finds it
challenging
to keep up with the constant flood of signatures What is the best IBM Security technology
differentiator?
A.Protocol Analysis Module in IBM Security host, endpoint, and network solutions.
B.Content Analyzer function in IBM Security Intrusion Prevention System appliances
C.The decryptions function in IBM Security Server Sensor.
D.IBMSecuritySecurityFusion Module function in IBM Security SiteProtector.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C2180-273
Exam Name: IBM Business Process Manager Advanced V8.0 Integration Development
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NO.1 A client requires that a new BPEL process return a fault message to the requester in case the
process does not complete correctly. The integration developer has added a fault handler to the
process to catch all exceptions. How should the integration developer return the fault message?
A. Use a throw activity of a business fault.
B. Use a reply activity using a standard fault.
C. Use a reply activity using a business fault defined in the interface.
D. Use a rethrow activity in the fault handler on the process scope using a fault defined in the
interface.
Answer: C

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NO.2 An integration developer needs to implement a human task in an integration solution. If
reusability is a priority, then the integration developer should develop:
A. a collaboration task, since it can be a parent task.
B. an administration task, since it is a reusable activity.
C. a to-do task, since it has access to the process context.
D. an invocation task, since it can be attached to a process.
Answer: A

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NO.3 An integration developer is modeling a human interaction and is trying to decide what type of
human task to use. What advice should be given to the integration developer when considering
using an in-line human task? The integration developer should select the in-line human task if the
task:
A. needs to call other services.
B. provides just another service.
C. needs access to process related information.
D. will eventually be called as an SCA module in the future.
Answer: C

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NO.4 An integration developer wants to use the Installation Manager to apply product updates.
Which of the following is the correct behavior of the Installation Manger regarding plug-ins?
A. As product updates are applied older version of plug-ins must be manually uninstalled.
B. As product updates are applied older versions of plug-ins are automatically uninstalled.
C. Older versions of plug-ins remain as product updates are applied.
D. Older versions of plug-ins need to be removed using the installation manager prior to newer
product updates being applied.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which context should an integration developer assign to the Service Message Object (SMO)
for a mediation flow with aggregation primitives (fan-out and fan-in) to temporarily store responses
from service invocations?
A. Shared
B. FailInfo
C. Transient
D. Correlation
Answer: A

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NO.6 An integration developer is planning to create a BPEL process to help with the management of
customer requests. The developer is intending to use a short-running process for the
implementation because it has been determined that the performance of the process is a high
priority, but the process must also be able to compensate for changes to the customer's request.
What approach should the integration developer take while implementing this process?
A. Implement the short-running process as planned, but call the appropriate compensation activity
from a fault handler in the process.
B. Implement the short-running process as planned, but associate an undo-operation with the
appropriate invoke activity in the process.
C. Since compensation is not supported in short-running processes, implement a long-running
process using compensation pairs.
D. Since compensation is not supported in short-running processes, use a compensation handler
and a compensation pair together in the log-running process
Answer: B

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NO.7 During acceptance testing of an integration solution, various errors in the mediation flows
were discovered. While correcting these errors, the development team found that little or no error
handling was present within the mediation flows. Therefore, a new requirement is introduced to
handle every exception within any mediation flow in exactly the same way by logging the exception
to a file. How can an integration developer implement this requirement?
A. Connect a trace primitive to each fail terminal.
B. Create a mediation flow containing the exception handling logic, and invoke it whenever an error
occurs.
C. Create a mediation subflow containing the exception handling logic, and connect every fail
terminal to this new subflow.
D. Create a mediation subflow containing the exception handling logic, and connect the error input
node of each mediation flow to this new subflow.
Answer: D

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NO.8 A microflow calls a long-running process using a two-way request/response synchronous
operation. What can be a consequence of using this pattern?
A. It will be easier to implement Exception Handling in the microflow.
B. When the long-running process completes, the microflow transaction will be committed.
C. The transaction and threads used by the microflow will be tied up until the long-running process
finishes.
D. Compensation logic will need to be implemented in the long-running process to ensure the
delivery of the reply to the microflow.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: P2070-092
Exam Name: IBM Datacap Taskmaster Capture Practical Application Technical Mastery v1
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Exam Code: A2010-538
Exam Name: Assess: 538 IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.2.2 Implementation
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NO.1 Which of the following is TRUE?
A. Actions are capable of reformatting dates.
B. Actions cannot change the value of a field.
C. Actions use message boxes to immediately report a failed rule.
D. All of the above.
Answer: A

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NO.2 The saved runtime batch structure, containing document and pages for a particular
batch, is called
what?
A. The page file.
B. The Admin Database.
C. The task file.
D. The batch data file.
Answer: A

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NO.3 .Detecting whether a form is signed is typically done with:
A. OCR
B. ICR
C. OMR
D. Parascript
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which of the following is NOT a key frustration of the business integration
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A. Reliance on multiple integration tools.
B. Integration capability based on older technology.
C. Integration tools do not handle EDI/B2B/SOA.
D. Integration tools do not provide visibility across the supply chain.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following cannot be adjusted using the Performance Tuning wizard.?
A. Number of available CPU's.
B. Allocated physical memory.
C. Database pool connections.
D. Priority levels of work queues.
E. JVM memory and system cache settings.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following is NOT a key business benefits of deploying Sterling B2B
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A. Reduced administration costs.
B. Enable more of your trading partners.
C. Reduced man-power required.
D. Integrated security management.
Answer: D

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NO.1 The purpose of Symphony Java API is ___________.
A. to have a standardize way of utilizing functionality of Symphony from within your
Symphony
applications.
B. to display Java Server Pages in Symphony.
C. to allow Java application to run from within Symphony.
D. to support Javascript scripting language just like a web browser.
Answer: A

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NO.2 DataPilot table consists of which 4 areas?
A. Page area, Title area, Data area and Detail area
B. Row area, Column area, Data area and Page area
C. Title area, Row area, Column area and Data area
D. Top area, Bottom area, Left area and Right area
Answer: B

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NO.3 Jane is new to Lotus Symphony and she wants to know what are the advantages of
using Mail Merge.
Which one of the following is NOT an advantage of Mail Merge.?
A. You can send attachments as PDF, not just ODF.
B. You can send out batches of letters that merge fields from a data source.
C. You can use Java API to execute mail merge operation in the background.
D. You can select a data source and merge its fields into a new document.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is one of the advantages of Symphony being built on top of Expeditor?
A. It allows you to create artificial intelligence applications.
B. It allows you to write .NET applications and integrate them with documents.
C. It allows you to synchronize every character of a document with a server.
D. It allows you to embed business productivity tooling in line of business workflow and vice-
versa.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which APIs does Symphony Presentation Object Model provide?
A. APIs to open, save and close presentation
B. APIs to save presentation to Lotus Notes database
C. APIs to convert presentation to Microsoft PowerPoint format
D. APIs to convert presentation to XML format
Answer: A

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Exam Code: A2040-988
Exam Name: Assessment: Administering IBM Lotus Sametime 8.5
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NO.1 Which of the following is true regarding Horizontal vs. Vertical clustering?
A. Vertical clusters require more machines.
B. Vertical clusters do not require a Deployment manager.
C. Horizontal clusters do not require a Deployment Manager.
D. Vertical clusters provide software level failover; Horizontal clusters provide software and
hardware
failover and load balancing.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Will is installing the new Sametime 8.5 Meeting Server. Which of the following is NOT
an option when
selecting the type of deployment for WebSphere in the Guided Activity for Sametime Meeting
Server?
A. Cell
B. Node Agent
C. DeploymentManager ?Primary Node
D. DeploymentManager ?Secondary Node
Answer: B

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NO.3 You upgraded your Sametime Community server to 8.5 without using the System
Console. Now you
want to be able to administer it through the system console. What is the best option to
accomplish this?
A. Reinstall theSametime System Console
B. Reinstall theSametime Community Server
C. Register the upgraded server with the System Console
D. Login to the System Console and rerun the install guided activity
Answer: C

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NO.4 Jon, the Sametime administrator, wishes to push plug-in updates to his users for the
Sametime
Connect client. Which of the following is the type of file that must be specified in the
Sametime server
configuration to provide update information to the clients?
A. site.xml
B. client.xml
C. plugin.xml
D. update.xml
Answer: A

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NO.5 Carol is planning to deploy Sametime 8.5 in her company and is looking to create a
vertical cluster of
the Sametime Meeting Server, the Sametime Media Manager and the Sametime Proxy
Server.
How many nodes does she need to deploy?
A. 2 nodes
B. 3 nodes
C. 4 nodes
D. 6 nodes
Answer: B

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NO.6 Utilizing the silent installer for the Sametime Connect client, Bill must provide specific
settings for the
silentinstall.ini file to enable SPENGO. Which of the following is required?
A. STUSERNAME
B. STSERVERSSLPORT
C. STAUTHSERVERURL
D. STCLIENTALTERNATELOGIN
Answer: C

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NO.7 If you are configuring the Lotus Sametime Media Manager to use SSL (Secure Socket
Layer), you
must do the following:
A. Cross certify youSametime System Console with Sametime Community server
B. Make sure the server's certificate has been added to theSametime System Console's trust
store.
C. Select that the server uses TLS in theSametime Media Manager connection properties in
the
Sametime System console.
D. Complete the Guided Activity for setting up SSL on theSametime Media Manager and
restart the
Sametime System Console.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which one of the following components is NOT part of the Sametime Media Manager
A. Packet Switcher
B. Conference Manager
C. Sametime Reflector
D. SIP Proxy/Registrar
Answer: C

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Exam Name: Assessment: IBM WebSphere Transformation Extender V8.4 Application Development
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Exam Code: C2090-619
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NO.1 Which two of the following statements are TRUE of a component rule? A component rule:
A. is used to create output.
B. is used for data validation.
C. can refer to any other component in the component list.
D. is always evaluated even if an optional component is not present in the data.
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 The structure of the following file has been partially defined in a type tree:
~Smith~Robert~Programmer<NL> ~Doe~John~Manager<NL>
The properties of the types have not been completely defined.
Which of the following options defines the properties for the use of the tilde (~) character in the
sample file?
A. Define ~ as a floating component of the Record type.
B. Define ~ character as a prefix delimiter of the File type.
C. Define ~ character as a prefix delimiter of the Record type.
D. Define ~ character as the initiator and terminator of LastName and FirstName types and initiator
of Title type.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which statement about syntax items is TRUE?
A. They must have a restriction list.
B. They have a maximum length of 1 byte.
C. The value must come from the input data.
D. They cannot be used as variable initiators.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which two of the following statements are TRUE of syntax items? Syntax items:
A. are limited to 10 bytes.
B. can only be defined as character data.
C. can be defined as character or binary data.
D. are used as separators between portions of data.
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 An application developer has a file which consists of fixed length records.
The first record is a header record followed by some number of detail records.
The number of detail records is expressed by a value found in the header record.
How does the developer define this type of data in WebSphere Transformation Extender?
A. Index the input based on the count in the header record.
B. Use a Map function to keep track of how many detail records there are.
C. Write a custom function to store the number of detail records in the map context.
D. Use a component rule to compare the current record to the value found in the header.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Refer to image shown here:
Which of the following statements is TRUE with regards to the type trees created using the XML
Schema Importer.
A. The trees were created with different schemas.
B. One tree was created using XSDL Hints and Xerces validation.
C. One tree was created using Classic validation and XSDL Hints.
D. One tree was created using Classic validation and the other using Xerces validation.D.One tree
was created using Classic validation and the other using Xerces validation.
Answer: B

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NO.7 The image here shows the components of a purchase order:
The application requires that the total number of items (TotalItems) in the Trailer Record equals the
sum of the quantity ordered (QtyOrdered) for each purchase order.
This verification can be performed by a component rule. Which component should have the
component rule?
A. TotalItems
B. QtyOrdered
C. Detail Record
D. Trailer Record
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is the primary difference between a choice group and a partitioned group?
A. A choice group requires that data must be distinguishable; a partitioned group does not.
B. A partitioned group requires that data must be distinguishable; a choice group does not.
C. A choice group can have both items and groups as components; a partition group can only have
groups as subtypes.
D. A partitioned group can contain both items and groups as components; a choice group can only
contain groups as components.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: C4120-784
Exam Name: IBM PureFlex Technical Expert V1
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Exam Code: M2010-719
Exam Name: Cloud and Smarter Infrastructure Storage Sales Mastery Test v5
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Exam Code: C2040-404
Exam Name: Developing Enterprise Mobile Applications with IBM Worklight and IBM WebSphere Portal
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NO.1 The client seeks to reduce cost and complexity in a highly virtualized x86 environment. They
want the network policies to migrate automatically along with mobile virtual machines to ensure
that security, performance and access remains intact as virtual machines move from server to server.
VMware is their virtualization standard. Which option will provide a complete solution?
A. Switches capable to support 802.1 QBG
B. Cisco Nexus 1000V on IBM VMready Switches
C. IBM Switch-resident IBM VMready capability
D. IBM Software Defined Networking (SDN) for Virtual
Answer: D

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NO.2 A client has purchased a Flex System with a Flex System Manager (FSM) and a p260 node.
Which of the following is the most cost-effective procedure to install the VIO server?
A. Engage Lab Services to complete the installation
B. Use the external USB DVD RAM that IBM delivers with a Flex System
C. Copy the VIO ISO images onto the FSM and use the installios command
D. Launch the Remote Control from the FSM and remote mount the VIO ISO images from your
workstation
Answer: C

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NO.3 A large enterprise client wants to perform a benchmark on a PureFlex System to compare the
performance against a competitive solution. What is the best way for the client to proceed?
A. Try and Buy a PureFlex System and let the client perform the benchmark
B. Lease a PureFlex System from a Business Partner and have the Partner perform the benchmark
C. Invite the client to the local IBM Client Center (ICC) and have the ICC perform the benchmark
D. Visit an IBM Products and Solutions Support Center (PSSC) and have the PSSC perform the
benchmark
Answer: D

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NO.4 The IBM Flex System Interoperability Guide is a handy reference document but its
information is only as accurate as of its most recent publication date. Where would the technical
expert find the latest complete information on supported FCoE configurations?
A. The FC-BB-5 standards documentation
B. IBM Flex System product development
C. Reference IBM's ServerProven web page
D. IBM System Storage Interoperation Center (SSIC)
Answer: D

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NO.5 The client has three independent redundant SAN fabrics: One for development, one for
validation and one for production. The client will use a chassis with x240 nodes to connect these
SAN fabrics. What is the best solution for the client?
A. Use two CN4054 adapters and two EN4093 switches, each with two FoD enhancements
B. Use two CN4058 adapters and two CN4093 switches, each with two FoD enhancements
C. Use two CN4058 adapters and four EN4093 switches, each with one FoD enhancement
D. Use one CN4054 adapter, LOM, and four CN4093 switches with FoD enhancements throughout
Answer: D

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NO.6 A client has a number of Power servers that are virtualized and boot from FC SAN with dual
VIO servers. The client is considering consolidation of server and network hardware (LAN and SAN)
while maximizing the return on investment by leveraging existing shared FC storage. Which option
meets the client requirements?
A. Utilize FCoE to boot the VIO servers
B. Utilize iSCSI to boot the VIO servers
C. Continue to use FC SAN for the VIO servers
D. Use a pair of internal drives to provide for the VIO servers
Answer: A

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NO.7 On a PureFlex system, how can an FSM be recovered if the management software is
inoperable because of misconfiguration or corruption, but the management node hardware is
operational and the hard drives have not failed?
A. Call smcli restore from the FSM CLI to restore the FSM
B. Call IBM Support and request a replacement of the FSM ITE
C. Connect to the Internet, download a new FSM image and install it over the IMM connection to
the FSM
D. Boot while pressing F12 and select the recovery partition as the boot device, then run a full
system recovery
Answer: D

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NO.8 A client wants a PureFlex Express configuration with an additional EN4093R 10Gb Scalable
Switch module for redundancy. The Power nodes in the configuration have four-port 10Gb NICs and
the client applications planned for the Power nodes will require the use of all four of those ports.
What must the technical expert include in the configuration to meet this requirement?
A. An additional pair of EN4093R 10Gb Scalable Switch modules
B. IBM Flex System CN4054 Virtual Fabric Adapter Upgrade for each CN4054 adapter
C. IBM Flex System Fabric EN4093 10Gb Scalable Switch (Upgrade 1) for each switch
D. IBM Flex System Fabric EN4093 10Gb Scalable Switch (Upgrade 2) for each switch
Answer: C

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Exam Code: M2050-653
Exam Name: IBM Emptoris Strategic Supply Management Sales Mastery Test v1
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Exam Code: A2010-569
Exam Name: Assess: IBM Tivoli Workload Scheduler V8.6 Implementation
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NO.1 There are many benefits derived from Emptoris Sourcing.
Which is not one?
A. Enforce compliance to standard process
B. Actively monitor supplier risk
C. Increase Adoption with RFx Wizards and Templates
D. Analyze "Non-Price" Factors to award suppliers
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www-304.ibm.com/industries/publicsector/fileserve?contentid=243307

NO.2 A customer would NOT use Contract Management to become best in class via:
A. Obligation control
B. Contract Authoring
C. Gaining Contract Visibility
D. Running eAuctions
Answer: D

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NO.3 From the selection list below, which option best describes why a customer would purchase the
Spend Analysis solution?
A. Manage "at risk" suppliers
B. Move contracts through faster to win more deals
C. To bring more spend under management
D. Guarantee more "on-time" delivery from suppliers
Answer: C

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NO.4 In cases where a prospect has multiple instances of ERP systems, Emptoris' Spend Analysis
value proposition most accurately reflects:
A. Ability to pull these sources together, cleansing the data and providing a single common view of a
process.
B. Provide a document management approach as opposed to a continuous synchronization of the
document with the data base
C. A proven track record of capturing savings in categories such as ingredients, raw materials,
assemblies, transportation, IT, facilities.
D. Segment the supplier base across multiple categories, geographies, and business units to manage
performance and evaluate capabilities at a local or global dimension.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following does not qualify as a prospect?
A. Annual budget for software is $50k
B. Number of mobile devices is greater than 1,000
C. Customer is currently considering Ariba, Bravo, CombineNet, lasta
D. Annual spend with the suppliers is greater than $400m
Answer: D

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NO.6 Below are example of Emptoris business drivers in the healthcare industry. Which one does
not apply?
A. A New CPO has been chartered by the CEO/COO to drive down operating costs
B. Successful usage of contract management for managing provider contracts
C. Pressure to reduce operating and medical costs while maintaining standards of care
D. Face-to-face channels where the customer interacts directly with agents who are able to
communicate with the portal electronically
Answer: C

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NO.7 Who is not a main stream competitor?
A. SAP
B. Upside
C. Ariba
D. Hiperos
Answer: D

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NO.1 Grayson created an application that is deployed on servers and with local replicas on individual
user workstations. What feature of IBM Notes can limit the data deployed to local replicas?
A. Managed Replicas
B. Database Encryption
C. Master Database Templates
D. Selective Replication Formula
Answer: D

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NO.2 James will need to use IBM LotusScript in order to modify the Calendar Profile stored in his
mail file. Given the following snippet of code, what would be the correct line for instantiating the
Calendar Profile? Dim session As New NotesSession Dim db As NotesDatabase Dim doc As
NotesDocument Set db=session.CurrentDatabase
A. Set doc=db.GetProfileDocument("CalendarProfile")
B. Set doc=db.SetProfileDocument("CalendarProfile")
C. Set doc=session.GetProfileDocument("CalendarProfile")
D. Set doc=session.SetProfileDocument("CalendarProfile")
Answer: A

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NO.3 Caroline is programmatically using the UniversalID property of a document. Which option will
return the same value as the UniversalID property?
A. @NoteID
B. @ReplicaID
C. @Command
D. @DocumentUniqueID
Answer: D

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NO.4 Daniel wants to programmatically use the full text indexing features of IBM Domino. Which
fields can be indexed by default?
A. rich text fields
B. access control list entries
C. fields in external databases
D. fields containing a summary flag
Answer: D

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NO.5 James has a large number of image resources and he knows that the name of the image
resource will change when it is updated. How can he add an alias name to the image resource?
A. After the image resource name, type a vertical bar (|) followed by the alias name.
B. Image resource names are chosen when they are created and cannot be renamed.
C. Open the Image resource in the IBM Domino Designer client and add the alias name to the
"Alias" field.
D. Image resources are chosen at the time they are created and do not support an Alias name.
Answer: A

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NO.6 In IBM LotusScript, which NotesDocument class property can be used to find the owner of a
lock on a document?
A. LockHolders
B. DatabaseLock
C. DocumentLock
D. WhoIsLockHolder
Answer: A

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NO.7 Felix is creating an application where a user will type extensive data into a text field. What is
the maximum amount of data IBM Domino can store in a text field?
A. 4 KB
B. 32 KB
C. 64 KB
D. limited only by available disk space to 1 GB
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the primary purpose of a master template?
A. It is required to use XPages.
B. It is required to use external data sources.
C. It prevents users from updating applications.
D. It keeps application instances consistent in design.
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. Maximo for Nuclear Power is an Industrial Solution only for Nuclear Power Industry so therefore
this solution is not suitable to any other non-Nuclear Industrial customers.
B. Customers in other industries may use Maximo for Nuclear Power solution as long as the
customer installs other Maximo Industrial Solution together.
C. Maximo may be used by non-Nuclear Power customers as we have several customer
examples already.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Identify IBM TRIRIGA Solutions that help to reduce costs through smarter space utilization.
A. Real Estate Management, Capital Project Management, Maintenance Management, and IT
Management.
B. Real Estate Management, Facilities Management, Capital Project Management, Maintenance
Management, and Environment & Energy Management.
C. Real Estate Management, Facilities Management, Capital Project Management, Maintenance
Management, Environment & Energy Management, and Transportation Infrastructure
D. Real Estate Management, Facilities Management, Capital Project Management, Maintenance
Management, and Environment & Energy Management.
E. Real Estate Management, Facilities Management, Capital Project Management, and
Maintenance Management.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Why is IBM Maximo the best solution for Nuclear Power Industry?
A. It provides users with ERP solutions that competitors do not have
B. It provides owners, operators and maintainers of nuclear power plants best practices to help
improve the productivity and efficiency of their critical assets.
C. It integrates with Primavera and other industry solutions
D. It can save energy for Nuclear Power Plants.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Many new features are included in Maximo Calibration 7.1.1 release. Which of the following
features can be found in the Maximo Calibration 7.1.1 release?
A. Multiple PM Frequency & Loop Calibrations
B. Maximo Mobile Calibration & Multiple PM Frequency
C. Standard Validation and Non-Linear Instruments
D. Maximo Mobile Calibration & Non-Linear Instruments
Answer: A

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NO.5 In Maximo for Nuclear Power 7.5.1, following Maximo modules are enhanced:
A. Operation Management and Regulatory Management
B. Work Management and Configuration Management
C. Reporting and Supply Chain Management
D. Regulatory Management and Surveillance
Answer: A

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NO.6 How can IBM Smarter Space Management solution help organizations to reduce facility costs?
A. Aggregates data, streamlines processes, simplifies reporting
B. Creates a smaller, more efficient workplace
C. Understanding what organization currently have, improving strategic facility planning, and
streamline workplace reservations
D. Reduces number of occupancy, grows revenue, increases customer satisfaction.
Answer: C

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NO.7 There are five key Real Estate and Facilities Management functions where TRIRIGA delivers
value to clients. Select the one that DOES NOT apply.
A. Real Estate Portfolio Management
B. Capital Construction Project Management
C. Space and Move Management
D. Maintenance Operations
E. Energy Management and Environmental Sustainability
F. IT Project Portfolio Management
Answer: F

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NO.8 What is the best way for Enterprise to maximize Return on Assets?
A. Stop spending money
B. Determine the level of service they want to perform at and balance the resources against this
level of service at an appropriate cost level to accomplish positive profit position.
C. Engage 3rd party services to outsource all maintenance services
D. Deliver on service no matter what the cost
Answer: B

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NO.1 A PureFlex prospect is excited about the PureFlex solution but is concerned about
implementation. Which of the following FSM capabilities simplify deploying PureFlex?
A. Set up wizards, element discovery, configuration patterns
B. Firmware or microcode update automatically without manual intervention
C. Both the network and storage will auto-configure without manual intervention
D. Product set up requires only plugging in network connections and powering up the chassis.
Answer: A

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NO.2 In a meeting with a prospect customer it was mentioned that they are interested in an
integrated system sold by Oracle that includes servers, networking, management, and virtualization.
To which Oracle solution is the customer referring?
A. Vblock
B. Exalogic
C. vCloud Director
D. Unified Computing System (UCS)
Answer: B

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6. When is a SPORE or RPQ request used when designing a PureFlex Express system?
A. To manage two chassis from a single FSM
B. Change the on order system to PureFlex Enterprise
C. Create a hybrid solution which will provide additional pre-install configuration
D. Design criteria dictates interoperability with a device outside of supported combinations
Answer: D

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7. A customer wants to purchase a PureFlex Power solution and has the need to load software
onto the nodes via a DVD. What option does the customer have to satisfy this need?
A. USB DVD device
B. DVD-ROM SAS/SATA device
C. Each node has an integrated DVD
D. Chassis comes with an integrated DVD
Answer: A

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NO.3 A PureFlex prospect is concerned about migration of data from their existing storage to the
Storwize V7000. Which of the following is a key enabling function of the Storwize V7000 and
PureFlex storage node to support migration of data from existing supported external storage
systems to the PureFlex environment?
A. Easy Tier
B. FlashCopy
C. Volume Copy
D. Storage Virtualization
Answer: D

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NO.4 A prospect asks their PureFlex sales professional a product feature question and the salesman
does not know the answer. Which of the following resources should the sales professional contact?
A. Techline
B. Supportline
C. Competeline
D. IBM Support Center
Answer: A

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NO.5 A PureFlex business partner sales specialist is dealing with a prospective customer for a Flex
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the sales specialist understand for this prospect if they plan to order via AAS?
A. Flex System configurations must be ordered with an RPQ
B. Flex System configurations will require a storage node or external storage
C. Flex System configurations require business partner certification for Power Systems
D. Flex System configurations requires x86 node and POWER7 nodes reside in different chassis
Answer: C

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