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Exam Code: C2150-533
Exam Name: IBM Security SiteProtector Systems V2.0 SP8.1
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C2150-533 Training online Total Q&A: 108 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-09-17

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Exam Code: A2040-410
Exam Name: IBM Notes and Domino 9.0 Social Edition Application Development B
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Exam Code: A2180-189
Exam Name: Assessment: Blueworks Live; BPM Exp/Std Ed V7.5.1, BPM Analysis
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NO.1 How much system hard drive space is required for the IBM Security SiteProtector
Systems V2.0 SP8.1
Database in the Recommended option?
A. 9 GB
B. 18 GB
C. 27 GB
D. 36 GB
Answer: B

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NO.2 A customer has deployed an Express installation. What is the default action when the
database
reaches 85% of capacity?
A. The database will continue processing normally without purging.
B. The database will begin purging up to 5% of the oldest data from the database.
C. The database will begin purging up to 10% of the oldest data from the database.
D. The database will begin purging up to 15% of the oldest data from the database.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which three components are installed individually by the Deployment Manager?
(Choose three.)
A. Event Archiver
B. Agent Manager
C. Database Server
D. Application Server
E. X-Press Update Server
F. SecurityFusion Module
Answer: ABE

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NO.4 How is an Event Collector upgraded in the IBM Security SiteProtector Systems V2.0
SP8.1 Console?
A. right-click on Event Collector > Update > Apply XPU
B. right-click on Event Collector > UpdateServer > Update EventCollector
C. using the Manual Upgrader tool, choose Event Collector from the list then click Apply
Update
D. using the X-Press Update Server, choose Event Collector from the list then click Apply
Update
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which three operating systems meet the requirements for installing the IBM Security
SiteProtector
Systems V2.0 SP8.1 Database in the Recommended option? (Choose three.)
A. Windows XP Professional SP2
B. Windows Server 2008 Standard
C. Windows 2000 Advanced Server
D. Windows Server 2008 Enterprise
E. Windows Server 2003 Enterprise Edition
F. Windows Server 2003 SP2 Standard Edition
Answer: BDF

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NO.6 Which components are installed during step two of a Recommended installation using
the Deployment
Manager in IBM Security SiteProtector Systems V2.0 SP8.1?
A. Site Database, Console
B. Site Database, Event Collector
C. Application Server, Event Collector
D. Application Server, Agent Manager
Answer: D

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NO.7 According to the scalability guidelines for a large site, a customer should have at least
what speed hard
disks available to the database server?
A. 5400 RPM
B. 7200 RPM
C. 10000 RPM
D. 15000 RPM
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which two virtual platforms are supported for running IBM Security SiteProtector
Systems V2.0 SP8.1?
(Choose two.)
A. Windows Virtual PC
B. VMware ESX Server V4.x
C. VMware ESX Server V3.x
D. VMware Workstation V7.1
E. Microsoft Virtual Server 2003
Answer: BC

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Exam Code: A2180-189
Exam Name: Assessment: Blueworks Live; BPM Exp/Std Ed V7.5.1, BPM Analysis
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Exam Code: A2050-723
Exam Name: Assessment: IBM WebSphere Commerce V7.0 Application Development
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Exam Code: C2020-004
Exam Name: IBM Cognos ICM Specialist Exam
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Last Update: 2014-07-15

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NO.1 When using an effective dated table as a source for a calculation, which two statements are
true? (Choose two.)
A. Join start and end date of the effective dated table to a single date.
B. Join the calendar table to the effective dated table.
C. Join on both effective dates.
D. Join an effective dated table to another effective dated table (not Time).
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Which table type is built by joining one or more tables and calculations together?
A. Data
B. Hierarchy
C. Custom
D. View
Answer: D

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NO.3 How does information from the Web client reach the database server?
A. from the Admin client
B. from the Web Application server
C. from the CognosICMService
D. from the Web Application server to the CognosICMService
Answer: B

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
In Presenter, when preparing data sources for the report shown in the exhibit, which type of source
must be created to produce the subtotals by payee?
A. Data Source
B. Subtotal Source
C. Aggregate Transformation
D. Computed Row
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which table property can be changed after it is saved?
A. name
B. description
C. primary key
D. type
Answer: B

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NO.6 In which two situations would you perform the Optimize Model function? (Choose two.)
A. When a large volume of data has been imported.
B. When calculations have been modified.
C. When a calendar period has been locked.
D. When a large number of admin client users have been added.
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 What is the impact of locking model calendars?
A. It affects calculations partitioned by the same calendar.
B. It has no effect on any calculations in the model.
C. It affects every calculation in the model regardless of calendars used.
D. It only affects calculations related to payout.
Answer: A

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NO.8 What are two purposes of using components in Composer? (Choose two.)
A. for aesthetics
B. for granular application of security
C. for organization
D. for troubleshooting purposes
Answer: B,C

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Exam Code: A2010-574
Exam Name: Assess: IBM Tivoli Business Service Manager V6.1 Implementation
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Exam Code: C4040-221
Exam Name: AIX 7 Administration
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Last Update: 2014-07-02

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Exam Code: A2180-189
Exam Name: Assessment: Blueworks Live; BPM Exp/Std Ed V7.5.1, BPM Analysis
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NO.1 The following information has been reported in an AIX error log:
How can the administrator prevent the error from reoccurring?
A. Create a secondary dump device greater than 266MB
B. Increase primary dump device size greater than 266MB
C. Increase "/var" file system to ensure it has a minimum of 266MB free space
D. Increase "/var/adm/ras/livedump" file system to ensure it has a minimum of 266MB free space
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is a requirement for Live Partition Mobility?
A. The network and disk must be virtual.
B. The disk must be virtual and a Logical Host Ethernet Adapter (LHEA) for network.
C. The client partition must be connected to a SAN.
D. The client partition must be set up as a 'Mover Service Partition'.
Answer: A

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NO.3 After performing a NIM rte install, the administrator noticed that not all filesets are at the
correct Technology Level (TL). What action will help the administrator determine why the
inconsistent fileset levels were installed?
A. On the NIM server, run an Ippchk to identify if the Software Vital Product Data is valid.
B. On the NIM client, run oslevel command against the TL to identify missing prerequisites.
C. Run instfix command on NIM client to determine what filesets are inconsistent.
D. On the NIM server run the NIM IsIpp command to indentify downlevel filesets contained in the
lpp_source.
Answer: D

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NO.4 A host has a single virtual Ethernet adapter (ent0) configured with only a default PVID, and the
administrator is trying to determine why it cannot be used to reach any other system on the
network. He suspects that it may be caused by a problem in the VLAN configuration.
How would the administrator determine the VLAN for which the adapter was configured?
A. Use the command 'Isdev -I ent0' on the host to determine the port VLAN ID.
B. Use the command 'Isattr-EI ent0' on the host to determine the port VLAN ID.
C. Look on the HMC to determine which VLAN is configured for the adapter.
D. Examine the Shared Ethernet Adapter on the Virtual I/O Server to determine which VLAN the
adapter is using.
Answer: C

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NO.5 An LPAR is configured with strict logical volume mirroring across two disks for resilience. The
administrator would like to ensure if one disk fails the volume group stays online. Which command
will ensure that the datavg volume group stays online?
A. varyonvg -n datavg
B. mirrorvg-Q-c 2 datavg
C. mklvcopy -e m -s y (each logical volume name) 2
D. chvg -Qn datavg
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is the difference between deferred and concurrent firmware updates?
A. Deferred firmware can be applied concurrently but contains updates that affect the internal
program load path, which are not activated until the next time the server is shut down and restarted.
B. Concurrent firmware must be done on all LPARs in the frame at the same time. Deferred
firmware can be loaded on each LPAR at a different time and only becomes active when the LPAR is
shutdown and restarted.
C. Deferred firmware can only be applied during an outage to the managed system as it will
automatically shut the managed system down during its installation.
D. Concurrent firmware is only for minor fixes to the system mircocode while deferred firmware
contains major fixes to the service processor.
Answer: A

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NO.7 How can an administrator disable Role Based Access Control (RBAC) in a WPAR?
A. Run chattr -E -I sys0 -a enhanced_RBAC=false Reboot the WPAR
B. Run the RBAC wizard and deselect 'Enable RBAC Reboot the system
C. Run chdev -I mywpar -a enhanced_RBAC=false Reboot the Global Environment
D. Run chwpar -a RBAC=false Reboot the WPAR
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which technology provides the maximum amount of usable storage and resilience for a
system with 6 physical volumes?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 6
Answer: C

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