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Exam Code: 3108
Exam Name: Avaya Scopia Solution Implementation and Maintenance Exam
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
3108 Real Questions Total Q&A: 66 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-10-02

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Exam Code: 6103
Exam Name: Avaya ERS 8000 and Avaya VSP 9000 Implementation Exam
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
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Last Update: 2014-10-02

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NO.1 What are two features that Scopia Elite MCUs provide in a video conferencing deployment?
(Choose two.)
A. Continuous Presence
B. Integration to Microsoft Lync
C. Data Collaboration
D. Gatekeeper access
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 What is the default port used by the PathFinder client to register to the Pathfinder server?
A. 443
B. 3089
C. 8080
D. 8443
Answer: B

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Reference:http://www.radvision.co.kr/NR/rdonlyres/1D144B1C-FA05-4265-AA4EA516E1D2244E/ 0/
%5C%5Cwww.adobe.com(p.9, first bulleted point)

NO.3 Which action can a user take when using Scopia Mobile?
A. Participate in the conference as audio only
B. Perform most of the moderating functions of the conference
C. Perform all moderating functions of the conference
D. Share data with other participants
Answer: D

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NO.4 How do you configure an Audio-only service in the MCU?
A. By selecting a service type and deselecting the multimedia option
B. By removing all video codecs from the video codecs table
C. By selecting all audio codecs from the audio codecs table
D. By selecting a service type and checking the "audio only" checkbox
Answer: D

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Reference:https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8 /documents/100173463(p.24)

NO.5 Is registration to a Gatekeeper or SIP Proxy required when using the Video IVR/Auto Attendant?
A. Yes, it is required.
B. The Video IVR/Auto Attendant can be configured only with registration to a Gatekeeper.
C. The Video IVR/Auto Attendant can be configured only with registration to a SIP Proxy.
D. No, it is not required.
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the minimum number of ports that needs to be opened in the firewall to enable
connectivity through the PathFinder server?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 7
D. 1000
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which statement is correct regarding the Scopia Elite MCUs?
A. The Elite MCUs can combine High Definition, Standard Definition, and Voice only ports in the
same conference.
B. The Elite MCUs can combine High Definition or Standard Definition ports.
C. The Elite MCUs only support High Definition ports.
D. The Elite MCUs can combine High Definition and Voice only ports.
Answer: B

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Reference:http://static.dekom.com/uploads/tx_vidowawi/Videokonferenz-Radvision-ScopiaElite600
0-Series-MCU-Administrator-Guide_V8.0.pdf(page 9)

NO.8 What can you use to control the Scopia XT Telepresence system?
A. You can use the XT remote control for basic functions.
B. You can only use Scopia Control.
C. You can use both the XT remote control and Scopia Control.
D. You can use the XT remote control for all functions.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 3108
Exam Name: Avaya Scopia Solution Implementation and Maintenance Exam
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
3108 Exam Cram Total Q&A: 66 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-09-24

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Exam Code: 6103
Exam Name: Avaya ERS 8000 and Avaya VSP 9000 Implementation Exam
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
6103 Practice Exam Total Q&A: 68 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-09-24

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NO.1 What can you use to control the Scopia XT Telepresence system?
A. You can use the XT remote control for basic functions.
B. You can only use Scopia Control.
C. You can use both the XT remote control and Scopia Control.
D. You can use the XT remote control for all functions.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which action can a user take when using Scopia Mobile?
A. Participate in the conference as audio only
B. Perform most of the moderating functions of the conference
C. Perform all moderating functions of the conference
D. Share data with other participants
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the default port used by the PathFinder client to register to the Pathfinder server?
A. 443
B. 3089
C. 8080
D. 8443
Answer: B

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Reference:http://www.radvision.co.kr/NR/rdonlyres/1D144B1C-FA05-4265-AA4EA516E1D2244E/ 0/
%5C%5Cwww.adobe.com(p.9, first bulleted point)

NO.4 Is registration to a Gatekeeper or SIP Proxy required when using the Video IVR/Auto Attendant?
A. Yes, it is required.
B. The Video IVR/Auto Attendant can be configured only with registration to a Gatekeeper.
C. The Video IVR/Auto Attendant can be configured only with registration to a SIP Proxy.
D. No, it is not required.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the minimum number of ports that needs to be opened in the firewall to enable
connectivity through the PathFinder server?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 7
D. 1000
Answer: B

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NO.6 What are two of the main functions of the Scopia Video Gateway for Lync? (Choose two.)
A. SIP Presence to Lync client
B. H.323 Presence to Lync client
C. Point-to-point and Multipoint calls between Lync clients and H.323 devices
D. One Click to voicemail
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 How do you configure an Audio-only service in the MCU?
A. By selecting a service type and deselecting the multimedia option
B. By removing all video codecs from the video codecs table
C. By selecting all audio codecs from the audio codecs table
D. By selecting a service type and checking the "audio only" checkbox
Answer: D

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Reference:https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8 /documents/100173463(p.24)

NO.8 What are two features that Scopia Elite MCUs provide in a video conferencing deployment?
(Choose two.)
A. Continuous Presence
B. Integration to Microsoft Lync
C. Data Collaboration
D. Gatekeeper access
Answer: A,D

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Exam Code: 6103
Exam Name: Avaya ERS 8000 and Avaya VSP 9000 Implementation Exam
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Exam Code: 3108
Exam Name: Avaya Scopia Solution Implementation and Maintenance Exam
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
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Last Update: 2014-09-10

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NO.1 Given the following command:
VSP-9012:1S show khi performance
Which Key Health Indicator is only valid for the CP modules?
A. CPU
B. buffer-pool
C. error-count
D. process
E. memory
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which function does the "RS" module for the ERS 8000 provide that the "R" module does not?
A. multiple port mirroring
B. multiple port cloning
C. SMLT functionality
D. extended port monitoring
Answer: C

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NO.3 QoS is the ability to manage the performance of data flows by giving treatment to the data
flows, users, and applications.
For which two network problems would QoS be a good solution? (Choose two.)
A. interface duplex mismatch
B. slow route table convergence
C. lack of bandwidth
D. end-to-end delay
E. network loops
Answer: A,E

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NO.4 An engineer is configuring the VSP 9000 for EDM management, and cannot connect from the
EDM computer to the VSP 9000.
Once logged into the ACLI, which show command is used to see the status of the web server?
A. show vsp edm server
B. show ip web-server
C. show sys webserver
D. show web-server
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which multicast technology, used with the Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000, allows the
router to determine whether any group members exist on its directly connected networks and
switches?
A. IGAP
B. IGMP
C. DVMRP
D. PIM-SM
Answer: B

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Reference:http://198.152.212.23 /css/P8 /documents/100175888(page 20)

NO.6 When troubleshooting an issue with an ERS 8000, running version 7.2, a technician notices
that the "Online" LED is steady amber for longer than 3 minutes. This is an indication of a software
incompatibility.
What is the first step in resolving this issue?
A. Use the show chassis command to look for software versions running on the switch.
B. Use the show compatibility command to verify that all software running is compatible.
C. Reboot the switch using the boot flags to force the switch to auto-update the software.
D. Use the show log command to check the system log for indications of communication problems.
Answer: D

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NO.7 In the current business environment everyone is being asked to do more with fewer physical
resources. Using virtualization allows the Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000 to increase the
services provided.
By using VRF-Lite, what does the VSP 9000 eliminate the need for?
A. SMLT
B. RSMLT
C. Non-overlapping addresses
D. Multiple physical routers
Answer: D

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Reference:http://www.avaya.com/usa/resource/assets/factsheet/vsp%209000%20dn4535 %20final
10-10.pdf(page 3, device virtualization)

NO.8 A customer is mirroring multiple ports to a single monitor port.
What happens if the mirrored traffic exceeds the bandwidth of the monitor port?
A. The traffic will be buffered until there is available bandwidth.
B. The excess traffic will be dropped randomly.
C. The excess traffic will be dropped based upon the mirror priority of the ingress port.
D. The excess traffic will be dropped based upon the port priority of the ingress port.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 3103
Exam Name: Radvision Scopia Solution for Video Communications Exam
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Last Update: 2014-08-12

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Exam Name: Avaya Session Border Controller Enterprise Implementation and Maintenance Exam
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NO.1 If the Remote Worker cluster is using a Real Server IP and Real Server Port, over which
protocols
are these registration requests routed?
A. HTTP/HTTPS
B. LDAP/PPM
C. FTP/SFTP
D. RTP/SFTP
Answer: A

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NO.2 What do Media Interfaces define?
A. The IP addresses and ports for media
B. The IP addresses and URIs
C. The RTP and TCP ports for media
D. The TLS and RTP ports for media
Answer: A

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NO.3 When installing either configuration on the same hardware, which statement describes the
relationship between the standalone SBC and the SBC + EMS (“all-in-one”)?
A. The standalone SBC software is the same as the SBC + EMS (“all-in-one”) software.
B. The standalone SBC and the SBC + EMS (“all-in-one”) must be controlled by the same EMS.
C. The standalone SBC and the SBC + EMS (“all-in-one”) are identical, regardless of hardware
platform.
D. The standalone SBC requires a different EMS from the SBC + EMS (“all-in-one”).
Answer: A

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NO.4 The site survey gathers what kind of information?
A. Configuration, topology, IP addresses
B. Network bandwidth test results
C. Customer readiness data
D. Server models
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which entity can also function as the Personal Profile Manager (PPM) for a Remote worker
cluster?
A. System Platform
B. Session Manager
C. Communication Manager
D. System Manager
Answer: B

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NO.6 How many networks are subnets are required to commission the SBC and implement SIP
trunking
on an SBC located in the DMZ?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D

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NO.7 Where do you implement the restriction that equipment can make calls only during a defined
period of the day?
A. Routing Profile
B. Domain Polity Administration
C. Topology Hiding Profile
D. Signaling Interface
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which pair of elements are configured in a Server Profile?
A. The IP address, the transport protocols
B. The QoS and auto-negotiation settings
C. The Time of Day rules and server FQDN
D. The default gateway and NTP IP addresses
Answer: A

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NO.1 In a multicast campus, when should an ERS 8600 PIM interface be configured to run in passive
mode?
A. When the interface is used as an edge interface and is aggregating traffic.
B. When the interface is used as a core interface and needs to limit PIM messages to reduce the
system load.
C. When there are no unicast routing paths.
D. When more than one unicast routing protocol is in use.
Answer: A

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NO.2 By default the ERS 8000 is configured for warm standby. After installation of a new ERS
solution with dual CPUs, which three actions need to be Perform on the ERS configuration to ensure
high availability mode is enabled and will function correctly? (Choose three)
A. Set the high availability CPU boot flag to true.
B. Set the warm standby CPU hoot flag to false. C. Set the save to standby CPU boot flag to true.
D. Save the boot.cfg conflg file and reset the switch to activate the changes.
E. Install the high availability license file.
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.3 Traceroute allows a route to be traced to a network using an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS)
8600 CLI command. How could you use it to limit the number of hops the traceroute reports?
A. Configure the -P (base UDP port) to the number of maximum number hops.
B. Configure the -q (number of probes per TTL) to the number maximum number of hops.
C. Configure the -m (maximum TTL value) to the number of maximum number of hops.
D. Configure the -w (wait time per probe) to the number of maximum number of hops.
Answer: C

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NO.4 When configuring a new Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8000 using the default interface, the
attempt to load an ACLI configuration fails because the default interface is the CLI. How is the ACLI
interface obtained?
A. Change the interface type in the config.cfg file.
B. Change the ACLI boot flag and save the boot configuration file.
C. Exit the CLI and choose ACLI at the interface manager prompt.
D. Use the abort command and enter 'no' at the default interface.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What does the trace level 9 3 command accomplish?
A. It captures BGP events at a terse level.
B. It captures packets copied to the CPU at a verbose level.
C. It shows CPU utilization.
D. It captures RCC IP events at verbose level.
Answer: B

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NO.6 A campus network requirement is to introduce Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF) in the
existing Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600-based core. The technician has to configure VRF on the
ERS 8600. Which statement represents the order for configuring a new VRF?
A. Creating a new VLAN, add an IP address to the VLAN, create the VRF in the VLAN configuration.
B. Create VRF, change context to the new VRF, add an IP address, create a new VLAN, and move the
VLAN to the new VRF.
C. Create a VRF, change context to the new VRF, create a new VLAN, add an IP address to the VLAN.
D. Create a VRF, create a new VLAN, move the VLAN to the new VRF, change context to the new VRF,
and add an IP Address.
Answer: D

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NO.7 The attempt to manage an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8000 using a Virtual Route
Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) address was not successful. What is causing this problem?
A. The virtual router identifier is 0.
B. The data center interface is set as a critical IP interface.
C. A real IP address is required for management access not a VRRP address.
D. The virtual router identifier is configured for the VRRP IP address owner.
Answer: C

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NO.8 What does Ping snoop identify?
A. The path that IP traffic takes over an MLT or SMLT
B. The rate of IP traffic flow
C. Which port filter is best to use on MLT networks
D. Rate limiting for ICMP traffic
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which two telemarketing situations would merit greater than a 2:1 line to agent ratio? (Choose two.)
A.using unconfirmed contact data
B.using one of the call blending solutions
C.using unsolicited calling lists (cold calling individuals)
D.calling customers with multiple contact numbers (home, business, etc.)
Answer:A C

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NO.2 Your customer has a group of agents that handle clerical and other duties and who handle calls only
when needed. A supervisor notifies these agents when they need to answer calls because calls are
queueing or being abandoned. However, the response is often too late to be of much help and the result
is many abandoned calls. Which Avaya Proactive Contact feature meets this customer's needs?
A.Virtual Agent
B.Person to Person
C.Intelligent Call Blending
D.Native Voice & Data Transfer
Answer:B

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NO.3 When using the Avaya Solution Designer tool, the License Quantity for Agent Connections should be
equal to the total number of _____.
A.agents in a typical shift
B.simultaneous headset connections
C.inbound lines purchased by the customer
D.outbound lines purchased by the customer
Answer:B

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NO.4 Which feature meets the needs of customers who want to run jobs that play messages to both phones
answered by live customers and phones answered by answering machines?
A.Autowrap
B.Virtual Agent
C.Agent Blending
D.Managed Dialing
Answer:B

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NO.5 What is Update Time?
A.the time period that begins when the agent greets the customer and ends when the customer hangs up
B.the time period that begins when the customer hangs up and ends when the agent releases the
customer record
C.the time period that begins when the agent releases the customer record and ends when the agent
receives the next call
D.the time period that begins when the customer first tells the agent pertinent information and the agent
records it and ends when the agent releases the record
Answer:B

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NO.6 You are using the Avaya Solution Designer. What is the correct input on the ACD line on the Predictive
Agent Blend software screen for an Avaya Proactive Contact System using Predictive Agent Blending
with one ACD?
A.leave line blank
B.type in the number 1
C.leave line at the default (0)
D.type in the ACD brand name
Answer:C

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NO.7 Which tool is new to the Editor Application in the Avaya Proactive Contact Supervisor software?
A.verification of jobs
B.record selection reports
C.messages files and scripts
D.IVR fields in record selections
Answer:C

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NO.8 The Avaya Proactive Contact access server provides which two functions within the system? (Choose
two.)
A.connects calls to agents
B.manages the internal LAN
C.serves as a dial-in point for access to the digital switch and CPU
D.is the interface that supervisors and agents use on their computers
Answer:B C

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NO.1 A technician has installed a now Avaya Aura Viewer server and configured It to store data coming from
five different Avaya Aura Contact Recording (Avaya CR) systems. The technician has created just a query
for testing functionality and is able to retrieve calls and play them. The customer was called for
information but they notice that there are no calls associated to one of the Avaya CRs (name ver2).
What are two possible causes of this problem? (Choose two.)
A. The query has not been released to Server2.
B. Server2 is a standby recorder for one of the other Avaya CRs, so it did not record any calls ' time
intervals the query was fun.
C. Server2 was not included as a "Capture Platform" into the Viewer Administration page.
D. Grant rights were not granted to the customer for Server2.
E. Server2 was not included as a "Location" in the Viewer Administration page.
Answer: AC

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NO.2 A technician has successfully installed the Avaya Aura Quality Monitoring (Avaya QM) software on a
client site, and needs to configure the Software. What needs to be configured at level1?
A. Switches
B. Data Connections
C. Servers
D. Sites
Answer: D

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NO.3 A technician is installing Avaya Aura Viewer on a large customer site with 500 recording channels. The
customer has an existing SQL database that they want to use. What would be the correct option for this?
A. Put the database and Viewer on the same server.
B. Put the Viewer on a separate server.
C. Put the Avaya Contact Recording Master (with no IP recording), the TDM Recorder, the database and
the Viewer on the same server.
D. Put the database, the Viewer, and the Avaya Aura Archive on the same server.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A technician has successfully installed the Avaya Aura Quality Monitoring (Avaya QM) software on a
client site, and needs to configure the software. The Avaya QM solution is being deployed as a single
server solution. As part of the configuration the Voice Cards must be specified.
Which kind of voice card should be created?
A. Dialogic D/240JCT
B. Dialogic D/82JCT
C. VR1000
D. Dialogic DSE DL-300x
Answer: B

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NO.5 A technicianhas finished installing an Avaya Aura Archive system thathas been addedto an
existingsolution, consisting of three Avaya Aura Contact Recording(Avaya CR) servers and one Avaya
AuraViewer system. Before startingthe Archive, what can be done toensure that calls canbe archived?
A. fromAuraarchive server, ping each of the Avaya CR servers by means of the name configured inthe
"Machine Name"fieldinthe"Capture Platform Information" windowinside theViewerapplication.
B. FromArchiveserver, ping each Avaya CR servers by means oftheirIp-addresses.
C. Check thatthe EWareCalls databasewas createdduring archive installation.
D. Verify from the"Recorder Status/Server" window on the AvayaCR thatthe "Linkto Viewer" field
isshowing "UP".
Answer: A

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NO.6 While waiting to activate an Avaya Aura Contact recording (Avaya CR) license, some tests are run with
the five-day license. Once the full license is obtained, what is the path to update the Avaya CR to the full
license?
A. System > License > Change License
B. System > Manage Users > Change License
C. General Setup > Recorder > License
D. General Setup > Recorder > Key Management Server
Answer: A

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NO.7 You have just installed one Avaya Aura viewer system and have made some test calls that appear to
have been recorded successfully by the Avaya Aura Contact Recoding (Avaya CR) system. While being
recorded, one of the test calls was put on and then taken of hold. When you run a query using Avaya CR
"Search and replay" you expect to __________ and when you run a query from Viewer, in the Viewer
query Results Windows you expect to _______ for the same call.
A. see two segments which can be connected by means of Universal Call ID (UCID) and you will have to
listen to two audio files; see only one segment and you will hear only one audio file playing the whole
conversation
B. see two segments which can be connected by means of UCID and you will have to listen to two audio
files; see two segments and you will hear two audio files playing
C. see one segment and you will hear one audio file that stops playing right after the call has b-put on hold;
see only one segment and you will hear only one audio file playing the whole conversation
D. see two segments which can be connected by means of UCID and you will have to listen to two audio
files; see only one segment and you will hear only one audio file stopping right after the call has been put
on hold
Answer: A

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NO.8 A technician has just installed an Aura Contact Recording (Avaya CR) system that uses Station Bulk
Recording, the customer has provided the list of extensions, login IDs and skills that need to be recorded,
and the technician wants to try one first to validate the configuration.
Which statement describes how to verify that the system is configured correctly.?
A. Add one of the agent login IDs in the table "Station to be Recorder" under "Operation/Station Bulk|
Recording". Then verify from Recorder Status/Ports that one the recorder ports has been assigned to the
extension where the agent is logged in, and that the state shows "Connected".
B. Add one of the extensions in the table "Station to be Recorder"under "Operation/Station Bulk
Recording". Then verify from Recorder Status/Ports that one of the recorder ports has been assigned to
the extension, and that the state shows "Connected".
C. No extensions in the system need to be configured as they will automatically be picked up by the
system, once the field "Filter Calls by VDN and/or Skill Hunt Group" under Operation/ Station Bulk
Recording" has been populated with the skills provided.
D. Add one of the extensions in the table "Station to be Recorder" under "Operation/Station Bulk
Recording". Then verify from Recorder Status/Ports that one of the recorder ports has been assigned to
the extension, and that the state shows "Idle".
Answer: B

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NO.1 A technician is planning to implement a single IP telephony node for a Co-Resident
Communication
Server (CS) 1000E system at release 7.0 Which components can be configured within the
node?
A. Virtual trunk gateways, virtual loops, Personal directory, IM and presence publisher
B. SMRN for MAS, SIP Line Gateway, Personal Directory
C. IP Media services, SIP Line Gateway, Personal directory, SIP Gateway
D. SIP Line Gateway, TPS, Personal directory, AML link, Voice gateway codecs
Answer: C

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NO.2 A CUSTOMER WITH A Communication Server (CS) 1000E Rls. 5.5 with two IPMGs is
upgrading their
system to release 7.0 The upgraded system will have two IP Media Gateways Which two
statements are
true regarding DSP resources for the IP Media Gateways in the upgraded system? (Choose
two)
A. DSP resources are no longer required for inter-IPMG calls
B. DSP resources are localized to a particular IPMG where the DSP resource is located
C. DSP resources are considered system resources and are not localized to a particular
chassis
D. DSP resources are required for TDM to IP calls
Answer: B, D

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NO.3 A customer has asked if the Communication Server (CS) 1000 Rls, 7.0 system can
prowde Executive
users with the ability to selectively drop people that have been added to a conference Based
on the
print-outs and assuming the CSD Key has been programmed and the Class of Service
assigned is CDCA
which capabilities are current available to the user of extension 2006?
A. The user can not see the conference display count or selectively disconnect callers
B. The user can see the conferee display count and can selectively disconnect callers
C. The user can see the conferee display count but can not selectively disconnect callers
D. The user cannot see the conferee display count but can selectively disconnect callers
Answer: B

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NO.4 A customer is preparing to install software on the CPMG Server and would like to
display the boot
sequence on the system terminal for the BIOS ROM, and Operating System Which port on
the CPMG
services this information?
A. Frontface TTY Port 2
B. Frontface TTY Port 1
C. Backplane 3-port connection TTY Port 0
D. Frontface Embedded LAN (ELAN) port0
Answer: B

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NO.5 A customer has deployed a Communication Server (CS) 1000 Ris.7.0 system at their
site, and have
asked that a swap using the using the Element Manager Pones tool on the two telephone
sets shown in
the print-out be performed What should the customer be told regarding this request?
A. These two telephones cannot be swapped because they do not have compatible TN types
B. These two telephones can be swapped because they are both assigned to TGAR 1
C. These two telephones can be swapped because they both have the same VCE Class of
service
D. These two telephones can not be swapped because they are not in the same Call Pickup
group
Answer: A

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NO.6 A Customer has deployed a Communication Server000 Rls. 7.0 system at their site
Their states
department is expanding and has asked that five new telephones be added with the same
capabilities as
the existing telephones in the department Which programming command should be used to
complete this
task?
A. Move to DN
B. Move form TN
C. Copy from DN
D. Copy from TN
Answer: D

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NO.7 A customer purchased a new Communication Server 1000E SA system with five media
gateways which
include MG 1: CPMG (Call Server, Signaling Server, Media Gateway Controller) MG2: Media
Gateway
Controller MG3: Media Gateway Controller MG4: Media Gateway Controller MG5: Media
Gateway
Controller Which statement is true regarding the configuration of Media Gateway 1.?
A. The Call Server and Media Gateway share the same ELAN IP address
B. The Call Server, Signaling Server, and Media Gateway share the same ELAN IP address.
C. The Call Server and Media Gateway have different IP addresses
D. The call Server, Signaling Server, and Media Gateway have different IP addresses
Answer: C

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NO.8 A technician is upgrading an exiting option 11C Rls. 5.5 system to a Communication
Server (CS) 1000E
Rls. 7.0 standard Availability with a single Media Gateway 1000E chasses . A CPMG, Co-
Resident Server
card is being deployed during the upgrade. This is a stand-alone system that is not part of a
larger
network so the CPMG will act as its own Primary Security Server Which supplication
deployment
combination will be deployed on the CPMG server for this customer?
A. CS+SS+EM
B. CS+SS+SIPL
C. CS+SS
D. CS+SS+NRS
Answer: A

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NO.1 A technician is installing Avaya Aura Viewer on a large customer site with 500 recording channels. The
customer has an existing SQL database that they want to use.
What would be the correct option for this?
A. Put the database and Viewer on the same server.
B. Put the Viewer on a separate server.
C. Put the Avaya Contact Recording Master (with no IP recording), the TDM Recorder, the database and
the Viewer on the same server.
D. Put the database, the Viewer, and the Avaya Aura Archive on the same server.
Answer: B

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NO.2 A technician has configured one Avaya Aura Contact Recording (Avaya CR) system to be used only 1
Avaya Aura Quality Monitoring (Avaya QM). Everything has been configured under the "Operation/Quality
Monitoring" tab in the Avaya CR administration window, and the "link to Quality" shows UP on the
"Recorder Status/Server" window. After a few calls are made, it is discovered that no calls are being
recorded correctly.
What are two possible reasons for this? (Choose two.)
A. The field "Can he Service Observed" is set to "N" for the Class of Restriction (COR) assigned the
recorder ports. The field "Can be a Service Observer" is set to "N" for the COR assigned to the extension
b-ordered.
B. The field "Can be Service Observed" is set to "N" for the COR for the agent logged in on the extension
being recorded.
C. The field "Can be a Service Observer" is set to "N" for the COR assigned to the recorder ports.
D. The field "Can be Service Observed" Is set to "N" for the COR assigned to the extension being
recorded.
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 A technician has successfully installed the Avaya Aura Quality Monitoring (Avaya QM) software on a
client site, and needs to configure the Software.
What needs to be configured at level1?
A. Switches
B. DataConnections
C. Servers
D. Sites
Answer: D

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NO.4 A technician has just installed an Aura Contact Recording (Avaya CR) system that uses Station Bulk
Recording, the customer has provided the list of extensions, login IDs and skills that need to be recorded,
and the technician wants to try one first to validate the configuration.
Which statement describes how to verify that the system is configured correctly.?
A. Add one of the agent login IDs in the table "Station to be Recorder" under "Operation/Station Bulk|
Recording". Then verify from Recorder Status/Ports that one the recorder ports has been assigned to the
extension where the agent is logged in, and that the state shows "Connected".
B. Add one of the extensions in the table "Station to be Recorder"under Operation/Station Bulk
Recording". Then verify from Recorder Status/Ports that one of the recorder ports has been assigned to
the extension, and that the state shows "Connected".
C. No extensions in the system need to be configured as they will automatically be picked up by the
system, once the field "Filter Calls by VDN and/or Skill Hunt Group" under Operation/ Station Bulk
Recording" has been populated with the skills provided.
D. Add one of the extensions in the table "Station to be Recorder" under "Operation/Station Bulk
Recording". Then verify from Recorder Status/Ports that one of the recorder ports has been assigned to
the extension, and that the state shows "Idle".
Answer: B

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NO.5 A technician has finished installing an Avaya Aura Archive system that has been added to an existing
solution, consisting of three Avaya Aura Contact Recording (Avaya CR) servers and one Avaya Aura
Viewer system.
Before starting the Archive, what can be done to ensure that calls can be archived?
A. fromAuraarchive server, ping each of the Avaya CR servers by means of the name configured in the
"Machine Name fieldinthe"Capture Platform Information" window inside the Viewer application.
B. FromArchiveserver, ping each Avaya CR servers by means of theirIp-addresses.
C. Check that the EWareCalls database was created during archive installation.
D. Verify from the "Recorder Status/Server" window on the AvayaCR thatthe "Link to Viewer" field is
showing "UP".
Answer: A

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NO.6 A technician has installed a now Avaya Aura Viewer server and configured It to store data coming from
five different Avaya Aura Contact Recording (Avaya CR) systems. The technician has created just a query
for testing functionality and is able to retrieve calls and play them. The customer was called for
information but they notice that there are no calls associated to one of the Avaya CRs (name ver2).
What are two possible causes of this problem? (Choose two.)
A. The query has not been released to Server2.
B. Server2 is a standby recorder for one of the other Avaya CRs, so it did not record any calls ' time
intervals the query was fun.
C. Server2 was not included as a "Capture Platform" into the Viewer Administration page.
D. Grant rights were not granted to the customer for Server2.
E. Server2 was not included as a "Location" in the Viewer Administration page.
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 You have just installed one Avaya Aura viewer system and have made some test calls that appear to
have been recorded successfully by the Avaya Aura Contact Recoding (Avaya CR) system. While being
recorded, one of the test calls was put on and then taken of hold. When you run a query using Avaya CR
Search and replay
you expect to __________ and when you run a query from Viewer, in the Viewer
query Results Windows you expect to _______ for the same call.
A. see two segments which can be connected by means of Universal Call ID (UCID) and you will haveto
listen to two audio files; see only one segment and you will hear only one audio file playing the whole
conversation
B. see two segments which can be connected by means of UCID and you will have to listen to two audio
files; see two segments and you will hear two audio files playing
C. see one segment and you will hear one audio file that stops playing right after the call has b-put on hold;
see only one segment and you will hear only one audio file playing the whole conversation
D. see two segments which can be connected by means of UCID and you will have to listen to two audio
files; see only one segment and you will hear only one audio file stopping right after the call has been put
on hold
Answer: A

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NO.8 A technician has successfully installed the Avaya Aura Quality Monitoring (Avaya QM) software on a
client site, and needs to configure the software. The Avaya QM solution is being deployed as a single
server solution. As part of the configuration the Voice Cards must be specified.
Which kind of voice card should be created?
A. Dialogic D/240JCT
B. Dialogic D/82JCT
C. VR1000
D. Dialogic DSE DL-300x
Answer: B

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Exam Name: Avaya Proactive Contact Solutions Implementation Exam (beta)
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Exam Code: 6201-1
Exam Name: Avaya Contact Center on Avaya Aura(TM) Communication Manager and Avaya Call Management System Implementation Exam
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NO.1 A supervisor reports that the data in Internet Monitor is only updating every two minutes. The
supervisor requests the update time be changed to every 30 seconds. Which configuration field in
master.cfg must be changed?
A.IMONDISPLAY
B.SURFREFRESH
C.IMONREFRESH
D.AUTORELPOLLTIME
Answer:C

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NO.2 Which voicemsg.cfg setup is correct to use on an Avaya Proactive Contact with CTI?
A.23:pf_msg1:41031:Female:Outbound:Voice:pf_msg1
B.14:41039:mwait1:Male:Outbound:Voice:mwait1
C.41017:19:infwait3:Female:Inbound:Voice:41017
D.189:virt1m:Male:Virtual:Voice:41026
Answer:A

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NO.3 Which parameter heading is correct to use in the opmon.cfg file for Avaya Proactive Contact with CTI?
A.DIALBACK
B.DIALIN
C.SOFTDIAL
D.DEDHEAD
Answer:C

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NO.4 You are configuring a Proactive Contact 4.X solution for your customer. They do not use the same result
codes that the dialer uses. They use a short four-character description. Which Supervisor function should
you use to ensure that your customer's host will understand the Avaya completion codes?
A.translate
B.merge
C.fill
D.format
Answer:A

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NO.5 Where are greetings, such as the pre-recorded messages an agent hears when they log in or the
messages played to a customer during a virtual job, stored in a Proactive Contact with CTI solution?
A.Avaya CM
B.AES Server
C.Proactive Contact CPU
D.Proactive Contact Digital Switch
Answer:A

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NO.6 Which Avaya software is used to provide consolidated reporting with Avaya Proactive Contact 4.X and
other Avaya communication solutions?
A.CMS
B.WebLM
C.Avaya IQ
D.Analyst
Answer:C

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NO.7 To track information being sent between the agent interface and the Avaya Proactive Contact 4.X
server, which file should be accessed on the client side to verify what is happening?
A.Moagent32.log
B.Moagent32.dll
C.PCagent32.log
D..log
Answer:A

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NO.8 Which Avaya CM circuit pack is necessary if the customer expects to do predictive dialing on Proactive
Contact with CTI?
A.TN744 Call classifier
B.TN2602 Media interface
C.TN799 C-LAN
D.TN464 DS1 Interface
Answer:A

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NO.1 You are working an intermittent issue with Avaya IP Agent R6 and have enabled Event Logging on the
end-users computer to capture log files. You need to instruct the end-user how to insert an event mark in
the log when the problem occurs.
Which keyboard combination do you have the end-user press to mark the event?
A. Alt + M
B. Alt + E
C. Ctrl + E
D. CtrI+M
Answer: C

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NO.2 For a High Availabihty CMS design supporting 4 ACDs with the CMS servers co-located with a local
ACD, the customer should have available which of the following Ethernet switch port configurations to
support the installation?
A. 2 Ethernet switch ports at each remote Communication Manager location I Ethernet switch port for
each Communication Manager co-located with a CMS server. 1 Ethernet switch port for each CMS server
B. 1 Ethernet switch port for each Communication Manager and 2 Ethernet switch ports for the Primary
and Secondary CMS servers.
C. 2 Ethernet swich ports at each remote Communication Manager location. 1 Ethernet switch port for
each Communication Manager co-located with a CMS server. 2 Ethernet switch ports for each CIViS
server.
D. 2 Ethernet switch ports at each Communication Manager location and 2 Ethernet switch ports for each
CMS server (Primary and Seconday)
Answer: D

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NO.3 Your client needs to address agent morale issues thin their call center. These issues are tied to those
agents who staff a higher number of skills resulting in more time spent on ACO calls (also known as hot
seats ¯).
Which Avaya capability should be used to help eliminate ® ho t sea t ¡¯ in a c a ll ce nter
A. Auto-Reserve Agents
B. Least Occupied Agent (LOA)
C. Expert Agent Selection (EAS)
D. Percent Allocation Distribution (PAD)
Answer: B

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NO.4 Your customer wants to periodically adjust agent skill assignments and preferences automatically
(without human intervention) based on real-time agent sales results in their CRM application.
Which solution would satisfy the requirement?
A. Implement a custom CTI application which will change the agent skills.
B. Pursue a custom application through Avaya CSI
C. Use Avaya Site Administration Scheduling.
D. Use CMS Supervisor scripting.
Answer: B

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NO.5 You have just installed Avaya P Agent R-6 on the computers for all 150 agents. All of the computers can
ping the Communication Manager (CM), but only 100 of the agents can log into their lP Agent station.
What is the cause of this issue?
A. The ®M ax i m u m C oncu rr en tl y R eg i s t e r ed I P S t a ti on¡¯ f ield o n t h ¡ ® s ys -parameters customer-options ¯
screen is set to 100.
B. The ® I P S t a ti on¡¯ f ield o n t h ¡ ® s ys -parameters customer-options ¯ sc r een i s se t t o¡ n
C. The ®M u lti m ed i a M od ¡¯ f ield o n t h ¡ ® chan ge s tat o n ¡ ¯ fo r m i s s et t o ¡ ® E nh n c
D. The ®Phone Fea t u r e¡¯ w i nd o w o n t h ¡® S tat ion A dm i n istrat io n f o r m nee d s t o be s e t o ¡® -In ¯.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which three statements descnbe the correct use of the asaiuui vector vanable when communicating
with an adjunct computer telephony integration application? (Choose three.)
A. Valid lengths of the asaiuui vector variable range from 1 to 24 digits
B. The asaiuu, vector variable allows the adjunct CTI application to set a variable for use in vector
processing
C. A common use for the asaiuui variable in a vector step is to test the assigned value against a threshold
value.
D. The scope of the asaiuui variables is only local
E. Once a value is assigned, it cannot be modified or changed byrne adjunct
Answer: B, C, D

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NO.7 Your customer would like to be able to collect call center data when the enterprise fragments using a
remote gateway. Since this is a small location, an LSP was installed to support the users Which system
would allow the customer to collect and then add data back to the main Call Management System (CMS)?
A. HACMS
B. Primary CMS
C. BCMR-D
D. Survivable CMS
Answer: D

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NO.8 You ask the Avaya Call Management System (CMS) administrator to increase the measured trunks.
Since the administrator has not changed parameters before, CMS administration documentation must be
accessed. Which three sections are needed to change parameters? (Choose three.)
A. Free Space Allocation
B. Data Storage Allocation
C. Trunk Group assignment
D. Data Collection
E. Disk Allocation
Answer: A, B, D

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