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NO.1 Which of the following statements accurately describes the command upgrade_export?
A. Used primarily when upgrading the Security Management Server, upgrade_export stores all object
databases and the /conf directories for importing to a newer Security
Gateway version.
B. upgrade_export stores network-configuration data, objects, global properties, and the database
revisions prior to upgrading the Security Management Server.
C. This command is no longer supported in GAiA.
D. upgrade_export is used when upgrading the Security Gateway, and allows certain files to be
included or excluded before exporting.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What information is found in the SmartView Tracker Management log?
A. Administrator SmartDashboard logout event
B. SecurePlatform expert login event
C. Creation of an administrator using cpconfig
D. FTP username authentication failure
Answer: A

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NO.3 Your boss wants you to closely monitor an employee suspected of transferring company secrets
to the competition. The IT department discovered the suspect installed a WinSCP client in order to
use encrypted communication. Which of the following methods is BEST to accomplish this task?
A. Use SmartView Tracker to follow his actions by filtering log entries that feature the WinSCP
destination port. Then, export the corresponding entries to a separate log file for documentation.
B. Watch his IP in SmartView Monitor by setting an alert action to any packet that matches your Rule
Base and his IP address for inbound and outbound traffic.
C. Send the suspect an email with a keylogging Trojan attached, to get direct information about his
wrongdoings.
D. Use SmartDashboard to add a rule in the firewall Rule Base that matches his IP address, and those
of potential targets and suspicious protocols. Apply the alert action or customized messaging.
Answer: A

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NO.4 The technical-support department has a requirement to access an intranet server. When
configuring a User Authentication rule to achieve this, which of the following should you remember?
A. You can limit the authentication attempts in the User Properties' Authentication tab.
B. Once a user is first authenticated, the user will not be prompted for authentication again until
logging out.
C. You can only use the rule for Telnet, FTP, SMTP, and rlogin services.
D. The Security Gateway first checks if there is any rule that does not require authentication for this
type of connection before invoking the Authentication Security Server.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which R75 component displays the number of packets accepted, rejected, and dropped on a
specific Security Gateway, in real time?
A. SmartView Monitor
B. SmartView Status
C. SmartEvent
D. SmartUpdate
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which statement is TRUE about implicit rules?
A. You create them in SmartDashboard.
B. The Gateway enforces implicit rules that enable outgoing packets only.
C. Changes to the Security Gateway's default settings do not affect implicit rules.
D. They are derived from Global Properties and explicit object properties.
Answer: D

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NO.7 You install and deploy GAiA with default settings. You allow Visitor Mode in the Gateway
object's Remote Access properties and install policy; but SecureClient refuses to connect. What is the
cause of this?
A. Set Visitor Mode in Policy > Global Properties > Remote-Access > VPN - Advanced.
B. Office mode is not configured.
C. You need to start SSL Network Extender first, then use Visitor Mode.
D. The WebUI on GAiA runs on port 443 (HTTPS). When you configure Visitor Mode it cannot bind to
default port 443, because it's used by another program (WebUI). You need to change the WebUI
port, or run Visitor Mode on a different port.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which R77 GUI would you use to see the number of packets accepted since the last policy
install?
A. SmartView Monitor
B. SmartView Status
C. SmartView Tracker
D. SmartDashboard
Answer: A

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NO.1 To change the default port of the Management Portal:
A. Edit the masters. conf file on the Portal server.
B. Modify the file cp_httpd_admin .conf.
C. Run sysconfig and change the management interface
D. Re-initialize SIC
Answer: B

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NO.2 Review the following list of actions that Security Gateway R76 can take when it controls
packets. The Policy Package has been configured for Simplified Mode VPN. Select the response below
that includes the available actions:
A. Accept, Drop, Encrypt, Session Auth
B. Accept, Drop, Reject, Client Auth
C. Accept, Hold, Reject, Proxy
D. Accept, Reject, Encrypt, Drop
Answer: B

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NO.3 You want to upgrade an NG with Application Intelligence R55 Security Gateway running on
Secure Platform to VPN-1 NGX R65 via Smart Update. Which package(s) is(are) needed in the
Repository prior to upgrade?
A. Secure Platform NGX R65 package
B. VPN-1 Power/UTM NGX R65 package
C. Secure Platform and VPN-1 Power/UTM NGX R65 packages
D. SVN Foundation and VPN-1 Power/UTM packages
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which network port does PPTP use for communication?
A. 1723/tcp
B. 1723/udp
C. 25/udp
D. 25/tco
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is a "sticky" connection?
A. A Sticky Connection is one in which a reply packet returns through the same gateway as the
original packet.
B. A Sticky Connection is a VPN connection that remains up until you manually bring it down.
C. A Sticky Connection is a connection that remains the same.
D. A Sticky Connection is a connection that always chooses the same gateway to set up the initial
connection.
Answer: A

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NO.6 The Management Portal allows all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Manage firewall logs
B. Schedule policy installation
C. View administrator activity
D. View the status of Check Point products
Answer: B

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NO.7 How does Check Point recommend that you secure the sync interface between gateways?
A. Configure the sync network to operate within the DMZ.
B. Secure each sync interface in a cluster with Endpoint.
C. Use a dedicated sync network.
D. Encrypt all sync traffic between cluster members.
Answer: C

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NO.8 In Management High Availability, what is an Active SMS?
A. Active Security Master Server
B. Active Smart Management Server
C. Active Security Management Server
D. Active Smart Master Server
Answer: C

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NO.1 A ClusterXL configuration is limited to ___ members.
A. There is no limit.
B. 16
C. 6
D. 2
Answer: C

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NO.2 John is the MegaCorp Security Administrator, and is using Check Point R71. Malcolm is the
Security Administrator of a partner company and is using a different vendor's product and both have
to build a VPN tunnel between their companies. Both are using clusters with Load Sharing for their
firewalls and John is using ClusterXL as a Check Point clustering solution. While trying to establish the
VPN, they are constantly noticing problems and the tunnel is not stable and then Malcolm notices
that there seems to be 2 SPIs with the same IP from the Check Point site. How can they solve this
problem and stabilize the tunnel?
A. This can be solved by running the command Sticky VPN on the Check Point CLI. This keeps the VPN
Sticky to one member and the problem is resolved.
B. This is surely a problem in the ISPs network and not related to the VPN configuration.
C. This can be solved when using clusters; they have to use single firewalls.
D. This can easily be solved by using the Sticky decision function in ClusterXL.
Answer: D

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NO.3 When configuring a Web Application for SSL VPN remote access, you have given the following
definition for the application along with its protection level.
Which of the following is the best match for the above application?
A. dmz.example.com/extranet
B. www.dmz.example/extranet
C. www.example.com/intranet
D. hr.dmz.example.com/intranet
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following QoS rule action properties is an Advanced action type, only available in
Traditional mode?
A. Guarantee Allocation
B. Rule weight
C. Apply rule only to encrypted traffic
D. Rule limit
E. Rule guarantee
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following is a supported Sticky Decision Function of Sticky Connections for Load
Sharing?
A. Multi-connection support for VPN-1 cluster members
B. Support for all VPN deployments (except those with third-party VPN peers)
C. Support forSecure Client/Secure mote/SSL Network Extender encrypted connections
D. Support for Performance Pack acceleration
Answer: C

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NO.6 If Victor wanted to edit new Signature Protections, what tab would he need to access in
SmartDashboard?
A. QoS Tab
B. SmartDefense Tab
C. IPSec VPN Tab
D. IPS Tab
Answer: D

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NO.7 Your customer asks you about the Performance Pack. You explain to him that a Performance
Pack is a software acceleration product which improves the performance of the Security Gateway.
You may enable or disable this acceleration by either:
1) thecommand:cpconfig
2) the commanD .fwaccel on|off
What is the difference between these two commands?
A. The fwaccel command determines the default setting. The command cpconfig can dynamically
change the setting, but after the reboot it reverts to the default setting.
B. Both commands function identically.
C. The command cpconfig works on the Security Platform only. The command fwaccel can be used on
all platforms.
D. The cpconfig command enables acceleration. The command fwaccel can dynamically change the
setting, but after the reboot it reverts to the default setting.
Answer: D

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NO.8 When defining an Organizational Unit, which of the following are NOT valid object categories?
A. Domains
B. Resources
C. Users
D. Services
Answer: A

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NO.1 When defining an Organizational Unit, which of the following are NOT valid object categories?
A. Domains
B. Resources
C. Users
D. Services
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following QoS rule action properties is an Advanced action type, only available in
Traditional mode?
A. Guarantee Allocation
B. Rule weight
C. Apply rule only to encrypted traffic
D. Rule limit
E. Rule guarantee
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following is a supported Sticky Decision Function of Sticky Connections for Load
Sharing?
A. Multi-connection support for VPN-1 cluster members
B. Support for all VPN deployments (except those with third-party VPN peers)
C. Support forSecure Client/Secure mote/SSL Network Extender encrypted connections
D. Support for Performance Pack acceleration
Answer: C

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NO.4 John is the MegaCorp Security Administrator, and is using Check Point R71. Malcolm is the
Security Administrator of a partner company and is using a different vendor's product and both have
to build a VPN tunnel between their companies. Both are using clusters with Load Sharing for their
firewalls and John is using ClusterXL as a Check Point clustering solution. While trying to establish the
VPN, they are constantly noticing problems and the tunnel is not stable and then Malcolm notices
that there seems to be 2 SPIs with the same IP from the Check Point site. How can they solve this
problem and stabilize the tunnel?
A. This can be solved by running the command Sticky VPN on the Check Point CLI. This keeps the VPN
Sticky to one member and the problem is resolved.
B. This is surely a problem in the ISPs network and not related to the VPN configuration.
C. This can be solved when using clusters; they have to use single firewalls.
D. This can easily be solved by using the Sticky decision function in ClusterXL.
Answer: D

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NO.5 David wants to manage hundreds of gateways using a central management tool.
What tool would David use to accomplish his goal?
A. Smart Provisioning
B. Smart Blade
C. Smart Dashboard
D. SmartLSM
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following generates a SmartEvent Report from its SQL database?
A. Security Management Server
B. SmartEvent Client
C. SmartReporter
D. SmartDashboard Log Consolidator
Answer: C

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NO.7 In ClusterXL, which of the following are defined by default as a critical device?
A. PROT_SRV.EXE
B. Filter
C. fw.d
D. protect.exe
Answer: B

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NO.8 In Management High Availability, what is an Active SMS?
A. Active Security Master Server
B. Active Smart Management Server
C. Active Security Management Server
D. Active Smart Master Server
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which of these statements describes the Check Point ThreatCloud?
A. A worldwide collaborative security network
B. Prevents vulnerability exploits
C. Controls access to web sites based on category
D. Blocks or limits usage of web applications
Answer: A

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NO.2 Check Point Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) is available in two deployment methods, as a
blade and also a dedicated appliance. What is the dedicated appliance called?
A. InterSpect Appliance
B. IPS-1 Sensor
C. Smart-1 Appliance
D. Power-1 Appliance
Answer: B

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NO.3 Can the Anti-Bot software blade be enabled on a Secure Web Gateway as well?
A. Yes, this is an optional blade for the Secure Web Gateway.
B. No, Anti-Bot needs to be part of the Threat Prevention Appliance.
C. Yes, it can be enabled if IPS is enabled as well.
D. Yes, Anti-Bot is always enabled together with Identity Awareness.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of these statements describes the Check Point IPS software blade?
A. Blocks or limits usage of web applications
B. A worldwide collaborative security network
C. Prevents vulnerability exploits
D. Controls access to web sites based on category
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which software blades are characteristic to a Threat Prevention Appliance?
A. Anti-Virus, Anti-Bot, IPS, Identity Awareness
B. Anti-Virus, Anti-Bot, IPS, URL Filtering, Identity Awareness
C. Anti-Virus, Anti-Bot, IPS, Application Control, URL Filtering, Identity Awareness
D. Anti-Virus, Anti-Bot, IPS, URL Filtering, Identity Awareness, SmartEvent
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is the minimum amount of RAM needed for a Threat Prevention Appliance?
A. 4 GB
B. It depends on the number of software blades enabled.
C. 2 GB with GAiA in 32-bit mode, 4 GB with GAiA in 64-bit mode
D. 6 GB
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of these is a Check Point Firewall attribute?
A. Malicious P2P application protection
B. Buffer overflow prevention
C. Worm injection blocking
D. Granular access control
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which TCP ports allow LDAP users to communicate with the Account Unit?
A. 689 clear, or 336 encrypted
B. 636 clear, or 389 encrypted
C. 336 clear, or 689 encrypted
D. 389 clear, or 636 encrypted
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which software blades are characteristic to a Threat Prevention Appliance?
A. Anti-Virus, Anti-Bot, IPS, Identity Awareness
B. Anti-Virus, Anti-Bot, IPS, URL Filtering, Identity Awareness
C. Anti-Virus, Anti-Bot, IPS, Application Control, URL Filtering, Identity Awareness
D. Anti-Virus, Anti-Bot, IPS, URL Filtering, Identity Awareness, SmartEvent
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the minimum amount of RAM needed for a Threat Prevention Appliance?
A. 4 GB
B. It depends on the number of software blades enabled.
C. 2 GB with GAiA in 32-bit mode, 4 GB with GAiA in 64-bit mode
D. 6 GB
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of these statements describes the Check Point IPS software blade?
A. Blocks or limits usage of web applications
B. A worldwide collaborative security network
C. Prevents vulnerability exploits
D. Controls access to web sites based on category
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of these statements describes the Check Point ThreatCloud?
A. A worldwide collaborative security network
B. Prevents vulnerability exploits
C. Controls access to web sites based on category
D. Blocks or limits usage of web applications
Answer: A

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NO.5 Check Point Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) is available in two deployment methods, as a
blade and also a dedicated appliance. What is the dedicated appliance called?
A. InterSpect Appliance
B. IPS-1 Sensor
C. Smart-1 Appliance
D. Power-1 Appliance
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of these is a Check Point Firewall attribute?
A. Malicious P2P application protection
B. Buffer overflow prevention
C. Worm injection blocking
D. Granular access control
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which TCP ports allow LDAP users to communicate with the Account Unit?
A. 689 clear, or 336 encrypted
B. 636 clear, or 389 encrypted
C. 336 clear, or 689 encrypted
D. 389 clear, or 636 encrypted
Answer: D

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NO.8 Can the Anti-Bot software blade be enabled on a Secure Web Gateway as well?
A. Yes, this is an optional blade for the Secure Web Gateway.
B. No, Anti-Bot needs to be part of the Threat Prevention Appliance.
C. Yes, it can be enabled if IPS is enabled as well.
D. Yes, Anti-Bot is always enabled together with Identity Awareness.
Answer: A

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NO.1 Using Event Viewer in SmartEvent, a Security Administrator discovers that the Application
Blade has detected three applications: YouTube, Tor, and PC in IE. Of these three applications, which
would be considered the most dangerous?
A. Tor
B. PC in IE
C. YouTube
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following actions applies to a Risk Level of 5 - Critical?
A. Can bypass security or hide identities
B. Potentially not business related
C. Can be misused and cause data leakage or malware infection
D. Can cause data leakage or malware infection without user knowledge
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following actions applies to a Risk Level of 3 - Medium?
A. Potentially not business related
B. Can cause data leakage or malware infection without user knowledge
C. Can be misused and cause data leakage or malware infection
D. Can bypass security or hide identities
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following actions applies to a Risk Level of 4 - High?
A. Can cause data leakage or malware infection without user knowledge
B. Can bypass security or hide identities
C. Potentially not business related
D. Can be misused and cause data leakage or malware infection
Answer: A

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NO.5 During the Application Control Discovery process, what is the best source of information for
decisions on blocking or not blocking an application?
A. The Help Desk
B. The Group Manager
C. The User
D. The Security Administrator
Answer: C

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NO.6 Who is best able to provide the justification for allowing access to some higher risk
applications?
A. The Help Desk
B. The Security Administrator
C. The User
D. The Group Manager
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following actions applies to a Risk Level of 1 - Very Low?
A. Can cause data leakage or malware infection without user knowledge
B. Can bypass security or hide identities
C. Potentially not business related
D. Usually business related, with low risk
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following statement is true regarding SmartEvent Intro? SmartEvent Intro:
A. requires no license, only a contract
B. has been discontinued
C. is free, and therefore requires no license
D. only view events from one blade
Answer: D

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NO.1 You are installing your R70Security Gateway.Which is NOT a valid option for the hardware platform?
A.Crossbeam
B.Solaris
C.Windows
D.IPSO
Answer: B

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NO.2 A Security Policy installed by another Security Administrator has blocked all SmartDashboard
connections to the stand-alone installation of R70.After running the fw unloadlocal command, you are
able to reconnect with SmartDashboard and view all changes.Which of the following change is the most
likely cause of the block?
A.A Stealth Rule has been configured for the R70 Gateway.
B.The Allow control connections setting in Policy > Global Properties has been unchecked.
C.The Security Policy installed to the Gateway had no rules in it
D.The Gateway Object representing your Gateway was configured as an Externally Managed VPN
Gateway.
Answer: B

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NO.3 John is the Security Administrator in his company He installs a new R70 Security Management Server
and a new R70 Gateway He now wants to establish SIC between them.After entering the activation key,
the message "Trust established" is displayed in SmartDashboard, but SIC still does not seem to work
because the policy won't install and interface fetching still does not work.What might be a reason for this?
A.This must be a human error.
B.The Gateway's time is several days or weeks in the future and the SIC certificate is not yet valid.
C.SIC does not function over the network.
D.It always works when the trust is established.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which command displays the installed Security Gateway version?
A.fw stat
B.cpstat -gw
C.fw ver
D.tw printver
Answer: C

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NO.5 You have blocked an IP address via the Block Intruder feature of SmartView Tracker How can you view
the blocked addresses'?
A.Run f wm blockedview.
B.In SmartView Monitor, select the Blocked Intruder option from the query tree view
C.In SmartView Monitor, select Suspicious Activity Rules from the Tools menu and select the relevant
Security Gateway from the list
D.In SmartView Tracker, click the Active tab.and the actively blocked connections displays
Answer: C

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NO.6 A digital signature:
A.Provides a secure key exchange mechanism over the Internet
B.Automatically exchanges shared keys
C.Guarantees the authenticity and integrity of a message
D.Decrypts data to its original form.
Answer: A

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NO.7 In previous version, the full TCP three-way handshake was sent to the firewall kernel for inspection.How
is this improved in current Flows/SecureXL?
A.Only the initial SYN packet is inspected The rest are handled by IPSO
B.Packets are offloaded to a third-party hardware card for near-line inspection
C.Packets are virtualized to a RAM drive-based FW VM
D.Resources are proactively assigned using predictive algorithmic techniques
Answer: A

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NO.8 What are you required to do before running upgrade__ export?
A.Run cpconfig and set yourself up as a GUI client.
B.Run a cpstop on the Security Management Server
C.Run a cpstop on the Security Gateway.
D.Close all GUI clients
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.1 Your company has the requirement that SmartEvent reports should show a detailed and
accurate view of network activity but also performance should be guaranteed. Which actions should
be taken to achieve that?
-Use same hard drive for database directory, log files and temporary directory -Use Consolidation
Rules -Limit logging to blocked traffic only -Using Multiple Database Tables
A. (i), (ii) and (iv)
B. (i), (iii), (iv)
C. (ii) and (iv)
D. (i) and (ii)
Answer: C

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NO.2 Refer to the network topology below. You have IPS Software Blades active on the Security
Gateways sglondon, sgla, and sgny, but still experience attacks on the Web server in the New York
DMZ. How is this possible?
A. AH of these options are possible.
B. The attacker may have used a bunch of evasion techniques like using escape sequence instead of
cleartext commands. It is also possible that there are entry points not shown in the network layout,
like rogue access points.
C. Since other Gateways do not have IPS activated, attacks may originate from their network
without anyone noticing.
D. An IPS may combine different detection technologies, but is dependent on regular signature
updates and well-turned anomaly algorithms. Even if this is accomplished, no technology can offer
100 % protection.
Answer: C

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NO.3 In configure a client to property log in to the user portal using a certificate, the Administrator
MUST:
A. Create an internal user in the admin portal.
B. Install an R76 internal Certificate Authority certificate.
C. Create a client certificate from Smart Dashboard
D. Store the client certificate on the SSL VPN Gateway
Answer: C

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NO.4 How do you verify the Check Pant kernel running on a firewall?
A. fw ctrl get kernel
B. fw ctrl pstat
C. fw kernel
D. fw ver -k
Answer: D

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NO.5 TotallyCoolSecuirty Company has a large security staff. Bob configured a new IPS
Chicago_Profile for fw-Chicago using Detect mode. After reviewing Matt noticed that fw-Chicago is
not detecting any of the IPS protections that Bob had previously setup.
Analyze the output below and determine how Matt corrects the problem.
A. Matt should assign the fw-Chicago Security Gateway to the Chicago_Profile.
B. Matt should the Chicago_Profile to use Protect mode because Detect mode
C. Matt should re-create the Chicago_Profile and select Active protections manually instead of per
the IPS Policy.
D. Matt should activate the Chicago_Profile as it is currently not activated.
Answer: A

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NO.6 You just upgraded to R76 and are using the IPS Software Blade You want to enable all critical
protections while keeping the rate of false positively very low. How can you achieve this?
A. The new IPS system is based on policies, but it has no ability to calculate or change the
confidence level, so it always has a high rate of false positives.
B. This can't be achieved; activating any IPS system always causes a high rate of false positives.
C. The new IPS system is based on policies and gives you the ability to activate all checks with critical
severity and a high confidence level.
D. As in SmartDefense, this can be achieved by activating all the critical checks manually.
Answer: C

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NO.7 In which case is a Sticky Decision Function relevant?
A. Load Sharing - Unicast
B. Load Balancing - Forward
C. High Availability
D. Load Sharing - Multicast
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which Remote Desktop protocols are supported natively in SSL VPN?
A. Microsoft RDP only
B. AT&T VNC and Microsoft RDP
C. Citrix ICA and Microsoft RDP
D. AT&T VNC, Citrix ICA and Microsoft RDP
Answer: D

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NO.1 What are the SmartProvisioning Policy Status indicators?
A. OK, Down, Up, Synchronized
B. OK. Waiting, Out of Sync, Not Installed, Not communicating
C. OK, Unknown, Not Installed, May be out of date
D. OK, Waiting, Unknown, Not Installed, Not Updated, May be out of date
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which specific R70 GUI would you use to view the length of time a TCP connection was open?
A. SmartView Tracker
B. SmartView Status
C. SmartView Monitor
D. Eventia Reporter
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is a task of the IPS Event Analysis Server?
A. Assign a severity level to an event.
B. Display the received events.
C. Forward what is known as an event to the IPS Event Analysis server
D. Analyze each IPS log entry as it enters the Log server.
Answer: D

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NO.4 You want VPN traffic to match packets from internal interfaces- You also want the traffic to exit the
Security Gateway bound for all site-to-site VPN Communities, including Remote Access Communities.
How should you configure the VPN match rule?
A. Communities > communities
B. Internal_clear > External_Clear
C. Internal_clear > All_GwTogw
D. Internal_clear > All_communities
Answer: D

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NO.5 Using IPS, how do you notify the Security Administrator that malware is scanning specific ports?
By enabling:
A. Malware Scan protection
B. Sweep Scan protection
C. Host Port Scan
D. Malicious Code Protector
Answer: C

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NO.6 You believe Phase 2 negotiations are failing while you are attempting to configure a site-to-site VPN
with one of your firm's business partners. Which SmartConsole application should you use to confirm your
suspicions?
A. SmartDashboard
B. SmartView Tracker
C. SmartUpdate
D. SmartView Status
Answer: B

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NO.7 You have selected the event port scan from internal network in Eventia Analyzer , to detect an event
when 30 ports have occurred when 60 seconds. You want to detect two ports scans from a host within 10
seconds of each other. How would you accomplish this?
A. You cannot set Eventia Analyzer to detect two port scans within 10 seconds of each other.
B. Select the two port-scan detections as a new event.
C. Select the two port-scan detections as a sub event.
D. Select the two port-scan detections as an exception.
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is the benefit to running Eventia Analyzer in Learning Mode?
A. There is no Eventia Analyzer Learning Mode
B. To run Eventia Analyzer, with a step-by-step online configuration guide for training/setup purpose
C. To run Eventia Analyzer with preloaded sample data in a test environment
D. To generate a report with system Event Policy modification suggestions
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which of the following commands is used to restore NGX configuration
information?
A. cpcontig
B. cpinfo-i
C. restore
D. fwm dbimport
E. upgrade_import
Answer: E

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NO.2 After being authenticated by the Security Gateway, When a user starts an HTTP
connection to a Web site, the user tries to FTP to another site using the command
line. What happens to the user? The:
A. FTP session is dropped by the implicit Cleanup Rule
B. user is prompted from that FTP site on~, and does not need to enter username and
password for Client Authentication
C. FTP connection is dropped by rule2
D. FTP data connection is dropped, after the user is authenticated successfully
E. User is prompted for authentication by the Security Gateway aqain
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which command allows you to view the contents of an NGX table?
A. fw tab -s <tablename>-
B. fw tab -t <tablename>-
C. fw tab -u <tablename>-
D. fw tab -a <tablename>-
E. fw tab -x <tablename>-
Answer: B

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NO.4 Ophelia is the security Administrator for a shipping company. Her company uses a
custom application to update the distribution database. The custom application
includes a service used only to notify remote sites that the distribution database is
malfunctioning. The perimeter Security Gateways Rule Base includes a rule to
accept this traffic. Ophelia needs to be notified, via atext message to her cellular
phone, whenever traffic is accepted on this rule. Which of the following options is
MOST appropriate for Ophelia's requirement?
A. User-defined alert script
B. Logging implied rules
C. SmartViewMonitor
D. Pop-up API
E. SNMP trap
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the command to see the licenses of the Security Gateway Certkiller from
your SmartCenter Server?
A. print Certkiller
B. fw licprint Certkiller
C. fw tab -t fwlic Certkiller
D. cplic print Certkiller
E. fw lic print Certkiller
Answer: D

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NO.6 Certkiller needs to back up the routing, interface, and DNS configuration
information from her NGX SecurePlatform Pro Security Gateway. Which
backup-and-restore solution do you recommend for Certkiller?
A. Database Revision Control
B. Manual copies of the $FWDIR/conf directory
C. upgrade_export and upgrade_import commands
D. SecurePlatformbackup utilities
E. Policy Package management
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which VPN Community object is used to configure VPN routing within the
SmartDashboard?
A. Star
B. Mesh
C. Remote Access
D. Map
Answer: A

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NO.8 You have two Nokia Appliances one IP530 and one IP380. Both Appliances have
IPSO 39 and VPN-1 Pro NGX installed in a distributed deployment Can they be
members of a gateway cluster?
A. No, because the Gateway versions must not be the same on both security gateways
B. Yes, as long as they have the same IPSO version and the same VPN-1 Pro version
C. No, because members of a security gateway cluster must be installed as stand-alone
deployments
D. Yes, because both gateways are from Nokia, whether they have the same VPN-1 PRO
version or not
E. No, because the appliances must be of the same model (Both should be
IP530orIP380.)
Answer: B

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NO.1 Static passwords such as VPN-1 & FirwWall-1 and operating system passwords are cached on the
desktop and users are not required to re-authenticate. Which of the following does NOT clear the
password cache?
A. Receives a policy update.
B. Perform a disconnect from a connect mode.
C. Selects the Stop VPN 1 SecuRemote option from the File menu.
D. Selects the Erase Passwords option from the Passwords menu.
E. Reboots the computer.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Ann is a VPN-1/FireWall-1 Security Administrator. Her organization's solution for remote-access
security is SecureClient. Ann's organization is undergoing a security audit. The auditor is concerned,
because static passwords, such as VPN-1 & FireWall-1 and operating system passwords are cached on
the desktop, and users are not required to re-authenticate. Which of the following explanations addresses
the auditor's concerns?
A. The auditor has incorrect information. SecureClient caches all passwords. A strong encryption
algorithm
protects the proprietary database used for password caching, so there is never a need to purge cached
passwords.
B. The auditor has incorrect information. SecureClient never cached passwords. SecureClient users are
forced
to re-authenticate for each new connection, regardless of the type of password used.
C. Cached passwords are purged when SecureClient receives Policy and Topology updates. Most
installation
update Security Policies frequently, so cached passwords are rarely stored for longer than six to eight
hours.
Renaming the userc.C file to userc.old will also purge the password cache.
D. Cached passwords are purged at an interval specified in the Desktop Security Policy. As long as the
user.C
file is encrypted, users cannot tamper with the interval setting. The interval time is in seconds from the
time to
SecureClient software is launched.
E. Cached passwords are purged when SecureClient is stopped, when a connect mode is disconnected,
and
when the computer is rebooted. SecureClient users can manually purge the cache, by choosing the Erase
Passwords option from the Passwords menu.
Answer: E

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NO.3 When upgrading a configuration to NG with Application Intelligence: (Choose the
FALSE answer)
A. Upgrade the SmartConsole.
B. Upgrade each module's version in SmartDashboard manually.
C. Upgrade the VPN-1/Firewall-1 Enforcement Modules.
D. Copy $FWDIR/state from one version of VPN-1/FireWall-1 to another version of
VPN-1/FireWall-1.
E. Upgrade the SmartCenter server. The version is set during the upgrade.
Answer: D

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NO.4 You are using Hybrid IKE for Client Authentication. SecureClient produces the error Certifcation is
badly signed. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem and the appropriate
solution?
A. Under the firewall object > VPN > IKE Properties > Support Authentication Methods, Hybrid Mode is
not
selected. Select the Hybrid Mode option, and stop and restart the Enforcement Module.
B. The Distinguished Name used is too long. Change it to a shorter name in the Manage Certificate
Properties screen.
C. The certificate created by the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) is corrupt. Create a new certificate.
D. The SecureClient and VPN-1/FireWall-1 Enforcement Module to which it is attempting to connect are
running incompatible versions. Upgrade the SecureClient to NG with Application Intelligence.
E. The digital signature is missing. Add the digital signature to the certificate in the Manage Certificate
Properties screen.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following is NOT a method of Load Balancing with
VPN-1/FireWall-1?
A. Domain Load Balancing
B. Round Robin
C. Server Load
D. Round Trip
E. Quantum Load Balancing
Answer: E

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NO.6 Ann would like to deploy H.323 with a gatekeeper and gateway on her internal network. This network
is
behind a VPN-1/FireWall-1 Enforcement Module. Which of the following objects is NOT required to
configure VPN-1/FireWall-1 for H.323 in this scenario?
A. Address Range representing internal IP-addressed phones
B. Gatekeeper Node Object
C. Address range of external IP-addressed phones
D. Voice over IP (VoIP) Gateway Node Object
E. Voice over IP (VoIP) Domain Object
Answer: C

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NO.7 Mark is preparing to install VPN-1/FireWall-1 and has created the installation plan below.
1. Perform the following operations below in sequential order.
2. Install the operating system.
3. Configure routing and IP forwarding.
4. Configure name resolution.
5. Patch the operating system.
6. Set $FWDIR and $CPDIR environment variables.
7. Install VPN-1/FireWall-1.
8. Patch VPN-1/FireWall-1,
Which step in Mark's installation plan is NOT necessary?
A. Operating-system patches should not be applied, until after VPN-1/FireWall-1 is installed. Applying
operating-system patches before VPN-1/FireWall-1 is installed will result in an unsecured system.
B. VPN-1/FireWall-1 configures name resolution automatically. Name resolution should not be part of the
installation plan.
C. There is nothing wrong with Mark's installation plan.
D.
Routing and IP Forwarding should be configured after VPN-1/FireWall-1 is installed. Configuring routing
and
IP forwarding before VPN-1/FireWall-1 is installed will result in an unstable system.
E. VPN-1/FireWall-1 configures environment variables automatically. Configure environment variables
should
not be part of the installation plan.
Answer: E

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NO.8 Which of the following statements about IKE Encryption are TRUE? (Choose three
)
A. The final packet size is increased after it is encrypted.
B. TCP and IP headers are encrypted, along with the payload.
C. IKE uses in-place encryption.
D. IKE can use the FWZ1 encryption algorithm.
E. IKE uses tunneling encryption.
Answer: A, B, E

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