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Exam Code: JK0-022
Exam Name: CompTIA Security+ Certification
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Last Update: 2014-10-26

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NO.1 Joe, the system administrator, has been asked to calculate the Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE)
for a $5,000 server, which often crashes. In the past year, the server has crashed 10 times, requiring
a system reboot to recover with only 10% loss of data or function. Which of the following is the ALE
of this server?
A. $500
B. $5,000
C. $25,000
D. $50,000
Answer: B

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NO.2 An achievement in providing worldwide Internet security was the signing of certificates
associated with which of the following protocols?
A. TCP/IP
B. SSL
C. SCP
D. SSH
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following can a security administrator implement on mobile devices that will
help prevent unwanted people from viewing the data if the device is left unattended?
A. Screen lock
B. Voice encryption
C. GPS tracking
D. Device encryption
Answer: A

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NO.4 A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) wants to implement two-factor authentication
within the company. Which of the following would fulfill the CISO's requirements?
A. Username and password
B. Retina scan and fingerprint scan
C. USB token and PIN
D. Proximity badge and token
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following would a security administrator implement in order to identify a
problem between two systems that are not communicating properly?
A. Protocol analyzer
B. Baseline report
C. Risk assessment
D. Vulnerability scan
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following can result in significant administrative overhead from incorrect
reporting?
A. Job rotation
B. Acceptable usage policies
C. False positives
D. Mandatory vacations
Answer: C

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NO.7 Three of the primary security control types that can be implemented are.
A. supervisory, subordinate, and peer.
B. personal, procedural, and legal.
C. operational, technical, and management.
D. mandatory, discretionary, and permanent.
Answer: C

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NO.8 The helpdesk reports increased calls from clients reporting spikes in malware infections on
their systems. Which of the following phases of incident response is MOST appropriate as a FIRST
response?
A. Recovery
B. Follow-up
C. Validation
D. Identification
E. Eradication
F. Containment
Answer: D

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Last Update: 2014-10-26

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NO.1 Ann, an administrator, is at a tradeshow and wishes to exchange contact information with a
vendor. Which of the following can she use? (Select TWO).
A. IR
B. DMZ
C. NFC
D. DNS
E. CSD
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Company employees are reporting wireless network connectivity issues. Which of the
following can cause interference for the company wireless network? (Select TWO).
A. Microwave ovens
B. Refrigerators
C. Nearby cell phone towers
D. Vending machines
E. Bluetooth devices
Answer: A,E

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NO.3 Ann, a user, called to report an issue related to authenticating to her mobile device. After
resolving the issue, which of the following is the FINAL task that should be completed by the
mobility administrator according to troubleshooting best practices?
A. Establish a theory of probable cause
B. Verify full system functionality
C. Document findings, actions, and outcomes
D. Implement preventative measures
Answer: C

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NO.4 When an application is assigned to a group profile:
A. it is assigned to all administrative users by default.
B. it is assigned to all users in the group.
C. it is removed from all users in the group.
D. it is assigned to all other groups.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following are considered security protocols? (Select THREE).
A. TLS
B. GCM
C. POP3
D. SSL
E. IMAP
F. 3DES
G. SMTP
Answer: A,D,F

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NO.6 A solution which tracks and organizes the usage and cost of voice and data is referred to as:
A. TEM.
B. MaaS.
C. SaaS.
D. B2B.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following would be used to enforce a policy requiring two-factor authentication
on certain mobile devices?
A. Username and password
B. Facial recognition and PIN
C. Pattern unlock and password
D. Fingerprint and retina scan
Answer: B

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NO.8 During the e-discovery process, a litigation hold has been placed on information stored in
several areas, including the mobile device of the Chief Financial Officer (CFO). Which of the
following
A. Review logging on the device and connecting MDM server
B. Isolate the device and apply chain of custody controls
C. Encrypt information stored internally on the device
D. Hash information stored on the device
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which of the following would a security administrator implement in order to identify a
problem between two systems that are not communicating properly?
A. Protocol analyzer
B. Baseline report
C. Risk assessment
D. Vulnerability scan
Answer: A

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NO.2 A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) wants to implement two-factor authentication
within the company. Which of the following would fulfill the CISO's requirements?
A. Username and password
B. Retina scan and fingerprint scan
C. USB token and PIN
D. Proximity badge and token
Answer: C

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NO.3 Three of the primary security control types that can be implemented are.
A. supervisory, subordinate, and peer.
B. personal, procedural, and legal.
C. operational, technical, and management.
D. mandatory, discretionary, and permanent.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following risk concepts requires an organization to determine the number of
failures per year?
A. SLE
B. ALE
C. MTBF
D. Quantitative analysis
Answer: B

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NO.5 Joe, the system administrator, has been asked to calculate the Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE)
for a $5,000 server, which often crashes. In the past year, the server has crashed 10 times, requiring
a system reboot to recover with only 10% loss of data or function. Which of the following is the ALE
of this server?
A. $500
B. $5,000
C. $25,000
D. $50,000
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following can be implemented in hardware or software to protect a web server
from cross-site scripting attacks?
A. Intrusion Detection System
B. Flood Guard Protection
C. Web Application Firewall
D. URL Content Filter
Answer: C

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NO.7 The helpdesk reports increased calls from clients reporting spikes in malware infections on
their systems. Which of the following phases of incident response is MOST appropriate as a FIRST
response?
A. Recovery
B. Follow-up
C. Validation
D. Identification
E. Eradication
F. Containment
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following can result in significant administrative overhead from incorrect
reporting?
A. Job rotation
B. Acceptable usage policies
C. False positives
D. Mandatory vacations
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which of the following is MOST important when factoring network level security in a public
cloud environment?
A. Ensuring good user experience
B. Ensuring confidentiality
C. Ensuring redundancy
D. Ensuring high availability
Answer: B

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NO.2 In which of the following cloud services will the customer be responsible for securing
provisioned hosts?
A. PaaS
B. IaaS
C. SaaS
D. DaaS
Answer: B

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NO.3 An administrator is creating a new VM template and has a requirement that the OS must be
hardened. Which of the following should be performed to harden a guest OS?
A. Encrypt the hard drive
B. Run defrag
C. Rename administrator account
D. Change page file
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following should an administrator implement when connecting the company's
existing network to a public cloud environment to ensure confidentiality of data that is being
transmitted?
A. A proxy server
B. A load balancing solution
C. An IPSec tunnel
D. A server clustering solution
Answer: C

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NO.5 An administrator is tasked to reduce the company's datacenter power utilization. Currently
there are 500 physical servers in the datacenter and 600 virtual servers with five additional available
host servers. Which of the following should the administrator perform?
A. Migrate servers using V2V technology
B. Perform an offline migration of virtual servers
C. Migrate servers using V2P technology
D. Migrate servers using P2V technology
Answer: D

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NO.6 A company has decided to reduce their datacenter size. An administrator for the company has
been tasked to virtualize many of the company's servers. Which of the following should the
administrator perform to accomplish this goal?
A. P2V
B. P2P
C. V2P
D. V2V
Answer: A

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NO.7 An administrator needs to provide Internet access to all internal systems using a single IP
address. Which of the following should the administrator implement?
A. NAT
B. Virtual switching
C. VLAN tagging
D. PAT
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following technologies would MOST likely be used for personal use to virtualize a
desktop?
A. Type II
B. Type I
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 0
Answer: A

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NO.1 During the e-discovery process, a litigation hold has been placed on information stored in
several areas, including the mobile device of the Chief Financial Officer (CFO). Which of the
following
A. Review logging on the device and connecting MDM server
B. Isolate the device and apply chain of custody controls
C. Encrypt information stored internally on the device
D. Hash information stored on the device
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following are considered security protocols? (Select THREE).
A. TLS
B. GCM
C. POP3
D. SSL
E. IMAP
F. 3DES
G. SMTP
Answer: A,D,F

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NO.3 Ann, a user, called to report an issue related to authenticating to her mobile device. After
resolving the issue, which of the following is the FINAL task that should be completed by the
mobility administrator according to troubleshooting best practices?
A. Establish a theory of probable cause
B. Verify full system functionality
C. Document findings, actions, and outcomes
D. Implement preventative measures
Answer: C

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NO.4 Company employees are reporting wireless network connectivity issues. Which of the
following can cause interference for the company wireless network? (Select TWO).
A. Microwave ovens
B. Refrigerators
C. Nearby cell phone towers
D. Vending machines
E. Bluetooth devices
Answer: A,E

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NO.5 Ann, a user, reports that her calendar is always an hour different than actual time. Which of
the following would cause this issue?
A. Calendar sync
B. Time zone
C. Connection to mail server
D. Battery level
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following would be used to enforce a policy requiring two-factor authentication
on certain mobile devices?
A. Username and password
B. Facial recognition and PIN
C. Pattern unlock and password
D. Fingerprint and retina scan
Answer: B

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NO.7 When an application is assigned to a group profile:
A. it is assigned to all administrative users by default.
B. it is assigned to all users in the group.
C. it is removed from all users in the group.
D. it is assigned to all other groups.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Ann, an administrator, is at a tradeshow and wishes to exchange contact information with a
vendor. Which of the following can she use? (Select TWO).
A. IR
B. DMZ
C. NFC
D. DNS
E. CSD
Answer: A,C

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Exam Code: SG1-001
Exam Name: CompTIA (CompTIA Storage+ Powered by SNIA Beta Exam)
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Total Q&A: 310 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 What enables a virtual machine to have a unique World Wide Port Name?
A. Address Replacement Protocol
B. Virtual Machine Address Translation
C. N_Port ID Virtualization
D. extended WWID Architecture
Answer: C

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NO.2 You have a single fabric with four servers connecting to an edge switch in a core edge configuration with
single 2Gb/s ISLs to the core. Each server has an average throughput requirement of 40MB/s. Under
which circumstance would you need to add a second ISL?
A. to provide a redundant path
B. to avoid congestion on the ISL
C. to separate out FSPF updates
D. to provide a management path
Answer: A

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NO.3 University IT provides shared Fibre Channel storage services. All storage subsystems and fibre
channel switches are located in the secure campus datacenter. Each college and department provides
their own systems and staff. Central IT provides fabric, storage and backup administration. Which security
mechanism is most important in this Fibre Channel infrastructure?
A. FCPAP
B. link encryption
C. switch authentication
D. port authentication
Answer: D

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NO.4 A customer has a database server that processes a great deal of data very quickly. They have identified
a bottleneck in the storage subsystem and requested a change to the RAID configuration. How would you
configure the new RAID group? (Choose two.)
A. Stripe across 7200 rpm drives
B. Stripe across 15K rpm drives
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 1+0
E. RAID 5
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 The storage administrator has a request to add more storage to support added features on an
application. Which two (2) steps must be taken for the application to recognize the added storage?
(Choose two.)
A. re-scan the SCSI bus
B. enable array re-scanning
C. configure LUN masking
D. zone the host to the subsystem port
E. increase the HBA time out value
Answer: A,C

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NO.6 Which two (2) are advantages of ISL over-subscription? (Choose two.)
A. efficient ISL bandwidth utilization
B. lowers cost-per-port per installation
C. higher performance per ISL
D. enables zoning simplicity
E. more available F_Ports
Answer: A,E

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NO.7 Two servers have been connected to a SAN with redundant fabrics and the zone configuration needs to
be changed. How can you safely change the zone configuration?
A. Save the current zone configuration to disk, modify it and apply it to both fabrics simultaneously to
avoid segmentation.
B. Modify the zone configuration on one fabric, test it, and then modify the zone configuration on the
second fabric.
C. Modify the zone configuration on one fabric, test it, and then copy the zone configuration to the second
fabric.
D. Modify the zone configuration on both fabrics at the same time, enable them simultaneously to avoid
segmentation.
Answer: B

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NO.8 A server administrator notices when a specific server is re-booted its SAN storage is sometimes visible
and sometimes it is not. After examining the SAN switch logs, no FLOGI message has been received on
that port. Which HBA parameter is a most likely cause?
A. Port Link/Speed is set to Autonegotiate.
B. WWPN reset timeout is set too low.
C. R_A_TOV does not match.
D. HBA Port Type is set to "E-Port"
Answer: A

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NO.9 What two (2) benefits does SCSI Command Tag Queueing provide? (Choose two.)
A. allows I/O requests to be queued to the device
B. determines the most efficient way to order & process commands
C. tags I/O requests so they can be executed first in first out
D. allows SCSI I/O throughput to equal rates of fibre channel
E. determines queue depth position
Answer: A,B

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NO.10 A two fabric merge has failed leaving you with segmented fabrics. Which could be the the cause of the
segmented fabrics?
A. unique domain Ids
B. identical zone names
C. timeouts set to equal values
D. non-compatible interoperability modes
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which set of SCSI components are required to support SCSI command tag queuing?
A. adapter, adapter driver, device, device driver
B. adapter, device, device driver
C. adapter, device driver, controller, controller firmware
D. device, device driver
Answer: A

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NO.12 You are the system administrator of a medium-sized manufacturing company. The chief executive
officer (CEO) is concerned about business continuity in case of a disaster. He constituted a project team
to develop a business continuity and disaster recovery solution. The team is discussing online backup
strategies. What affects time-to-create and incremental update of a copy-on-write snapshot?
A. number of files
B. number of LUNs
C. size of snap volume
D. size of LUN
Answer: D

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NO.13 A production cluster is attached to redundant disk fabrics and a tape fabric. Each cluster member has
access to twelve (12) TB of RAID 5 production storage and twelve (12) TB of RAID 0 local replica
accessed through eight HBAs single initiator zoned to sixteen storage ports on one storage subsystem.
The tape fabric includes one connection to each server and connections to four (4) 1Gb FC to SCSI
gateways connected to ten (10) LTO II (35MB/s) tape drives. The standby cluster member performs
multi-threaded backups using the local replica. All HBAs and ports are 2Gb/s. If the recovery time is equal
to backup time, where is the bottleneck?
A. Tape HBA
B. Disk HBAs
C. Tape Drives
D. FC to SCSI Gateway
Answer: A

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NO.14 After a company experienced a localized disaster, the Business Continuance Plan was reviewed. The
plan was revised to include a Recovery Time Objective (RTO) of four (4) hours and a Recovery Point
Object (RPO) of one hour. What two (2) processes must be implemented to support this requirement?
(Choose two.)
A. mirrored snapshots of data and applications
B. backup tapes recovered from offsite storage
C. data snapshots from the previous day
D. operating system and application reinstallation media
E. hot or warm site
Answer: A,E

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NO.15 The customer has an existing fabric switches installed from one manufacturer. They have decided to
add a redundant fabric using switches from a different manufacturer. Interoperability is their main concern.
What is important when considering interoperability in the SAN?
A. switch interoperability mode
B. HBA firmware/driver code
C. zone naming convention
D. virtualization engine
Answer: D

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NO.16 Last month, you successfully merged two (2) local SAN islands into a single core/edge fabric topology
and connected storage devices to the core switches. Performance benchmarks were met or exceeded. In
recent days, server administrators have documented a slow down in performance as I/O demands have
increased. Storage administrators report that all storage ports are under-utilized. What is the most likely
explanation?
A. conflicts between SAN routing protocols
B. storage port buffer credit limits have restricted I/O capabilities
C. multiple process login failures
D. over utilization of one or more ISLs
Answer: D

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NO.17 An application administrator seeks to improve the I/O performance of the server's SAN-attached
storage. Which HBA parameter setting change can affect the performance?
A. Queue Depth
B. PCI Connection Type
C. NL-Port Mode
D. SCSI ID Mapping
Answer: A

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NO.18 Your customer has upgraded to faster tape technology and the backup is now taking longer. No other
changes have been made. What is a possible cause of the performance degradation?
A. tape buffer overload
B. hardware compression
C. backup server cannot sustain required throughput
D. serpentine recording changed to helical scan technology
Answer: C

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NO.19 A storage configuration was created which stores large amounts of infrequently used documents. The
storage implementation is based on serial attached SCSI (SAS) and an edge expander. Almost all ports
are utilized, and a second edge expander will be installed. What is required to connect SATA devices to
the SAS domain?
A. SAS-SATA adapter
B. SAS-SATA protocol converter
C. cable with two SATA connectors
D. cable with a SAS and a SATA connector
Answer: C

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NO.20 The SAN audit reports that there is a single fabric in a full mesh topology. Which three (3) benefits result
from migrating to dual fabrics with full mesh topologies? (Choose three.)
A. less inter-switch links
B. simplifies manageability
C. protection from human error
D. reduction in maintenance activity
E. decreased maintenance disruption
Answer: A,C,E

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Exam Code: HIT-001
Exam Name: CompTIA (CompTIA Healthcare IT Technician Exam)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 524 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-04-23

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NO.1 A visiting IT professional is at an OBGYN practice and has been granted access to the computer system,
but not the practice's paper records it's previous system of charting for patients. It's after standard work
hours the IT professional is working late. He knows an ex-girlfriend used to be a patient at the practice
and decides he wants to see her charts, since he can't find her in the computer. What simple Physical
Safeguard would help fulfill HIPAA by protecting against the IT professional from accessing the practice's
PHI?
A. The paper records are in locked the mobile charting cabinets in the check-in area.
B. The paper records are color coded.
C. The paper records are locked in storage room.
D. The paper records are kept in a series of drawers only known to the Privacy Officer.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following types of budget incorporates the budgets of each individual business unit?
A. Organizational Budget
B. Operating Budget
C. Statistical Budget
D. Master Budget
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following is a project management tool that is characterized by circles connected by lines
to indicate the sequence of event?
A. PERT Diagram
B. Gantt Chart
C. Venn Diagram
D. Critical Path
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following agencies is responsible for protecting the well being of all health care workers?
A. The Joint Commission
B. Food and Drug Administration
C. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
D. Department of Health and Human Services
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following traces and reports each router or gateway crossed by a TCP/IP packet on its
way to the remote host?
A. Helix
B. PATHPING
C. TRACERT
D. Netstat
Answer: C

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NO.6 Information such as your name, date of birth and social security number are all considered to be
protected health information. This information would fall into which of the following categories?
A. De-Indentified Health Information
B. Individually Identifiable Health Information
C. Archived Health Information
D. Demographic Health Information
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following commands can verify connectivity between two computers? Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. NSLOOKUP
B. PING
C. IPCONFIG
D. TRACERT
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 This group can apply for incentive payments for the adaption, implementation, upgrading and/or
meaningful use of certified electronic health record technology, due to provisions of the Health Information
Technology for Economic and Clinical Health Act of 2009. Each correct answer represents a complete
solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Hospitals
B. Patients
C. Healthcare Clearinghouse
D. Eligible providers
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 You are responsible for securing the network at a law firm. You are concerned about printer security.
What steps should you take to prevent printer security breaches? Each correct answer represents a
complete solution. Choose two.
A. Remove the printer's driver from user computers.
B. Scan printer hard drives for spyware and viruses.
C. Secure any administrative connections (SSH, Telnet, etc.) to printers.
D. Limit print jobs.
Answer: B,C

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NO.10 Which of the following database models is simply a collection of objects related by an object that has
certain characteristics?
A. Enterprise Model
B. Network Model
C. Hierarchal Model
D. Object Oriented Model
Answer: D

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NO.11 According to HIPAA, how long must a medical practice retain a patient's medical records?
A. ten years
B. five years
C. three years
D. HIPAA does not mandate how long.
Answer: D

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NO.12 A dot matrix printer prints faded or light characters on the paper. What could be the most likely cause of
the issue?
A. Incorrect printer driver
B. A print head pin that is stuck inside the print head
C. Bad printer port
D. Worn-out ribbon
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following measures the time a cathode-ray tube (CRT) electron beam takes to paint a
screen from top to bottom?
A. Bus width
B. Dot Pitch
C. Video RAM size
D. Refresh rate
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following is the most secure among the following encryption algorithms?
A. 3DES
B. RC4
C. AES
D. DES
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following types of health insurance allows the patient to direct his/her own care?
A. HMO
B. Indemnity Plan
C. Point of Service
D. PPO
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following portable computer systems is used by smart phones for offering advanced OS
capabilities? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. SBC
B. SFF
C. Tablet PC
D. PDA
E. laptop
Answer: D

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NO.17 You are asked to design an information system in which the client-server platform is based on the
following schematic. What type of architecture is incorporated within your information system?
A. Three-Tier Architecture
B. WAN Technology
C. Two-Tier Architecture
D. LAN Technology
Answer: A

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NO.18 You work in a healthcare clinic that has many patients that receive benefits from a state program that
helps low-income families with the costs of healthcare. You have to work with the state office to check on
the design and deployment of healthcare information systems that can help check eligibility policies and
deploy electronic health records in treatment and billing. What is one of the names of this kind of
program?
A. Medicare
B. Medicaid
C. Tricare
D. FEHB
Answer: B

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NO.19 One of the data fields within the HL7 specifications is for Provider Type. What does this mean?
A. It's the type of healthcare facility the patient is being seen in.
B. Specifies the major grouping of the service or occupation of the practitioner
C. It's the type of insurer providing insurance coverage for the patient.
D. Specifies the seniority level of the physician
Answer: B

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Explanation: The specialty of the provider or practitioner is what is contained in the Provider Typedata
field, for example Behavioral and Social Services, or Neurology or Dermatology. Answer: A isincorrect.
Provider in this case refers to the physician or health care professional, not the facility.Answer: C is

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incorrect. Provider does not refer to the insurance entity. Answer: D is incorrect."type" does not refer to
the seniority level of the physician, but their specialty field.

NO.20 You are hired by an Office Manager at a branch of a home health care service company to help install
software for client scheduling, billing and insurance coding and payroll preparation. The office manager is
impressed with your work and recommends your work to the next level of administration within the
organization. What position might that be? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose
all that apply.
A. Board of Directors
B. Billing Coordinator
C. Staffing Coordinator
D. President
Answer: B,C

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Exam Code: 225-030
Exam Name: CompTIA (CDIA+ Certification)
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Total Q&A: 170 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-04-18

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NO.1 A local library keeps many important documents relating to the historical landmarks in town. The
documents consist of blueprints, photographs, and newspaper articles. The library wants to capture the
documents electronically so they can be viewed online. The first concern of the person capturing the
documents would be the:
A. color of the documents.
B. age and physical condition of the documents.
C. volume of the documents on file.
D. number of file cabinets.
Answer: B

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NO.2 All of the following are routing features of production workflow EXCEPT:
A. work monitoring.
B. support for multiple queues based on work type.
C. sorting queues in date order.
D. pending or holding items.
Answer:A

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NO.3 A member of the implementation team discovers that the software vendor is issuing a new version.
Which one of the following should be done?
A. Upgrade after the project completion date
B. Research the new product to understand its features
C. Inform the business sponsors
D. Notify the Project Manager
Answer: D

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NO.4 A company would like to scan documents for disaster recovery purposes. Which system would be most
appropriate?
A. Knowledge Management System (KMS)
B. Image Management System (IMS)
C. Electronic Document Management System (EDMS)
D. Storage Area Network (SAN)
Answer: B

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NO.5 A company has a single call center. It will introduce new products that will increase customer service
calls. The company wants to handle an increasing number of calls without adding personnel or
decreasing customer service levels. Which aspect of workflow technology should it consider?
A. Pre-retrieval of customer folders
B. Sorting of documents in a work queue
C. Load balancing
D. Work monitoring
Answer:A

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NO.6 Which of the following are elements of a communication plan?
A. Ethernet and TCP / IP
B. Project charter and project plan
C. E-mail and FTP
D. All-hands meetings and intranet postings
Answer: D

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NO.7 A client wishes to establish a Document Management System (DMS) for handling a large volume of
standard documents to be scanned. The client wants to enable search capabilities for certain information
on the documents. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate solution?
A. Form recognition and entire document search
B. Form recognition and index search
C. Zonal OCR and entire document search
D. Zonal OCR and index search
Answer: D

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NO.8 When reviewing potential software choices to propose to a client, the MOST important aspect to
consider from the following is:
A. the price of the potential software solution.
B. how well the software meets the clients needs.
C. the cost of the annual maintenance agreement of the software.
D. how robust the software is.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Many of the documents to be scanned by a customer are sales invoices with a yellow background. A
feature of the proposed scanning solution should include:
A. image enhancement.
B. deskew.
C. color dropout.
D. color enhancement.
Answer: C

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NO.10 A business requires its employees to have access to internal documents via the Internet. Which of the
following technologies will allow access to those documents and maintain security of the connection?
A. Checksumming
B. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)
C. Watermarking
D. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
Answer: D

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NO.11 A proposed scanner uses TIFF Group 4 compression. What will be the average size of a black and
white A4 sized
(8.5
inches x 11 inches or 216 mm x 279 mm) document at 600 dpi (24 dots per mm)?
A.
50 K bytes
B.
180 K bytes
C.
210 K bytes
D.
380 K bytes
Answer: C

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NO.12 The proposed project plan requires that documents must have a file plan and track all access
attempts. What MUST be part of this solution?
A. A records management system
B. A storage management system
C. A scan subsystem
D. Annotation and redaction capabilities
Answer:A

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NO.13 A customer is performing incremental backups nightly. At the end of the month they review a list of
documents that have reached their end of life and determine if they can be destroyed. Which of the
following BEST describes the records storage management process?
A. The customer does not have a records management process.
B. The customer has an informal records management process.
C. The customer has a formal records storage management process.
D. The customer has a document capture process.
Answer: C

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NO.14 The Human Resources department receives applications: 10% by fax, 30% by e-mail, and 60% by mail.
All applications are two-sided forms. Applications received by mail must be scanned into the Document
Management System (DMS). If 300 applications are received by the Human Resources department per
week, how many images will be scanned per week?
A. 300
B. 360
C. 400
D. 600
Answer: B

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NO.15 What is a disadvantage of scanning all images at the highest resolution possible?
A. Higher expense
B. Lower quality
C. Small file size
D. Compatibility issues
Answer:A

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NO.16 During discovery phase interviews with key personnel, a previously unknown critical document type is
identified. What should the next step be?
A. Ignore the document type in order to avoid scope creep
B. Include the document type in the project scope
C. Document the discovery and complete a change order request form
D. Discuss alternatives to including the document type
Answer: B

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NO.17 All of the following are inputs to project schedule development EXCEPT:
A. change requests.
B. lead- and lag-times.
C. resource requirements.
D. resource availability.
Answer:A

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NO.18 While validating requirements, it becomes apparent that multiple solutions could fit the customers
needs. The consultant should:
A. pick the solution they feel is best suited.
B. choose the least expensive option in terms of price to help win the business.
C. present the alternatives to the customer for discussion.
D. pick the most feature rich solution.
Answer: C

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NO.19 A company is required to create a training class for a proposed Electronic Document Management
System (EDMS). All of the following factors would be considered for end-user training EXCEPT:
A. the assessed skill level of individuals.
B. the document management needs of the organization.
C. the architecture of the network.
D. the current manual processes regarding documents.
Answer: C

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NO.20 A document that would address the repurposing or reorganization of staff, the benefits of a new
system, and the increased market value of staff due to new skills is called a:
A. cultural change management plan.
B. project management plan.
C. human resource plan.
D. project objectives document.
Answer:A

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NO.1 An encoder sensor typically detects:
A.paper position.
B.shaft rotation.
C.magnetic flux.
D.laser beam strength.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Scheduled preventative maintenance visits should be carried out:
A.after two unplanned service calls.
B.according to manufacturers specifications.
C.when the device is becoming unreliable.
D.every sixty days.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following stages in the laser print process attracts toner to the latent image on the
photoconductor?
A.Writing
B.Fusing
C.Development
D.Transfer
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following functions is associated with the developer unit?
A.Supplies toner to the photoconductor
B.Charges the surface of the photoconductor
C.Writes the latent image on the photoconductor
D.Cleans the photoconductor
Answer: A

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NO.5 The proper safety guidelines for handling any device specific consumables can be found in which of
the following documentation?
A.Material Safety Data Sheets
B.Installation Guides
C.Consumer Reports
D.Devices Parts Catalog
Answer: A

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NO.6 During the photoconductor preparation step, residual charge can be removed by which of the
following? (Select TWO).
A.Pressure
B.Oil
C.Light
D.Gravity
E.Electrical Charge
Answer: CE

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NO.7 In which of the following sections of an MFP would a technician find a Xenon Lamp?
A.The paper feed section
B.The fuser section
C.The scanner section
D.The transfer section
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following type of lamp is used for heating a fuser?
A.Xenon
B.Halogen
C.Incandescent
D.Light Emitting Diode
Answer: B

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NO.9 How many CCDs are located in a single pass duplex ADF?
A.One
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following types of media would MOST likely cause above normal amounts of machine
jamming?
A.Envelopes
B.Colored media
C.Letterhead
D.Pre punched
Answer: A

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NO.11 When onsite repairing a printer the technicians cell phone rings and it is a personal call, how should
the technician handle this?
A.Answer the call and talk to your friend at the customer site.
B.Answer the call and tell the friend you will call them later.
C.Let it go to voicemail, call them back between service calls.
D.Let it ring and call the friend back when the customer leaves.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following is the FIRST step a technician should take when troubleshooting a device
issue?
A.Gather information from the customer.
B.Isolate the problem on the device.
C.Read the service documentation for possible causes.
D.Check the parts life counters.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Using the CMYK color model, the color purple is produced by combining cyan and which other color?
A.Green
B.Magenta
C.Yellow
D.Black
Answer: B

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NO.14 When is it advisable to dump the waste toner from a technicians service vacuum?
A.When it is full.
B.It is not recommended.
C.Before performing preventative maintenance.
D.After each call.
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following is the purpose of a torque limiter in a roller?
A.To reduce wear and tear on rollers.
B.To provide resistance but still allow some slippage.
C.To limit the amount of movement by media.
D.To make it easier to replace rollers.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following would be the BEST process for the technician to follow when beginning to
diagnose a unit at a customers site?
A.Check the printers error log, and then inform the primary user what the issue is.
B.Go directly to the printer and investigate any issues that are found.
C.Investigate the printers status, then ask the primary user to write down what they think is wrong.
D.Gather information from the primary user, and then evaluate the printers condition.
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which of the following failed components would be responsible for the fuser unit not heating properly?
A.Halogen lamps
B.Ball bearing
C.Hot roller
D.Pressure roller
Answer: A

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NO.18 When arriving at the customers location, two different users describe the problem, and from their
description it seems to be two separate problems. Which of the following is an appropriate step to take?
A.Ignore both of them and decide what the real problem is.
B.Set up a separate call for each problem.
C.Have them duplicate the problem at the device.
D.Ask a third person and see if the problem is the same thing.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following is a reason black toner is used in color printers?
A.It decreases the print speed in color laser printers.
B.It prevents moir patterns when printing color photographs.
C.It reduces the cost per page when printing gray scale documents.
D.It makes the color toner resistant to smudging when wet.
Answer: C

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NO.20 A customer has installed a new computer on their network. They can print to the printer but the option
for duplex printing is not available. All other computers have the option. Which of the following is the
cause of the problem?
A.The new computer is printing to the wrong IP address.
B.The new computer is using the wrong protocol.
C.The driver port is not setup correctly.
D.The option has not been selected on the driver.
Answer: D

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NO.21 How should a service representative provide closure at the end of a call for a client?
A.Explain the issues of the call, the steps taken to resolve them and query the client if they have any
additional needs.
B.Explain the solution to the issue and then provide the client with the technicians contact information in
case they have any questions.
C.Give the client a technical explanation on the issue and how it was fixed; throw any faulty equipment in
the clients garbage.
D.Proceed to the next service call, check back with the client in a week to see if they have any additional
needs.
Answer: A

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NO.22 The customer has a dedicated ink jet fax machine that is used to send and receive faxes only from the
corporate office. The user complains of streaks on the received faxes while the internal self-prints are fine.
Which of the following should a technician recommend?
A.Clean the scanner glass on the distant machine.
B.Clean the scanner glass on the local machine.
C.Clean the printer head on the local machine.
D.Call the telephone company to increase the line signal level.
Answer: A

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NO.23 A polygon mirror is part of which of the following assemblies?
A.Laser unit
B.Developer unit
C.Charge assembly
D.Fuser assembly
Answer: A

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NO.24 The polygon mirror is located in which of the following components?
A.Developer unit
B.Scanner unit
C.Fuser unit
D.Laser unit
Answer: D

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NO.25 A technician is troubleshooting a network connectivity issue on a MFD and would like to eliminate the
possibility of another device on the network having the same IP address. The technician should:
A.disconnect the MFD and ping the IP address.
B.disconnect the MFD and ping the subnet mask.
C.disconnect the MFD and ping the loopback address.
D.run the ipconfig command from the command prompt.
Answer: A

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NO.26 Which of the following components is part of the ink dispersion system?
A.Print Heads
B.Cleaning heads
C.Pickup Roller
D.Charge Assembly
Answer: A

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NO.27 Which of the following devices can route electrical signals only when activated by an external control
signal?
A.Solenoid
B.Relay
C.Clutch
D.Capacitor
Answer: B

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NO.28 A customer is concerned about excessive media jamming in their device. Which of the following is the
FIRST thing a technician should check?
A.Media feed rollers
B.Cassette drawers
C.Fusing section
D.Device log data
Answer: D

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NO.29 Which of the following utilities could be used to determine a subnet mask?
A.PING
B.NSLOOKUP
C.TRACERT
D.IPCONFIG
Answer: D

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NO.30 Which of the following items can be used as a discharge lamp?
A.Halogen lamp
B.Light Emitting Diodes (LED)
C.Fuser lamp
D.Cleaning roller
Answer: B

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