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Exam Code: CRCM
Exam Name: IFPUG (CERTIFIED REGULATORY COMPLIANCE MANAGER (CRCM))
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 463 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-26

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NO.1 A compliance professional’s responsibilities include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Understanding the business units operating environment and risk tolerance
B. Performing risk assessments with the assistance of business units to determine current
risk levels and risks associated with the bank’s products, lines of business, customers, and
locations, among other factors
C. Working with business units to ensure prompt corrective action for any detected errors
D. Assisting business lines with compliance training for employees, as needed
Answer: D

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NO.2 should include basic elements designed to understand and mitigate risk.
It usually includes:
Written program
Compliance-related policies and procedures
A. Tactical Compliance procedure
B. Rank solution
C. Compliance program
D. None of these
Answer: C

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NO.3 In a compliance program, tactical compliance procedures should be integrated into
business line procedures, such as how to deliver an Adverse Action Notice when an
application is declined. In this case:
A. Regulations should be applied consistently to procedures throughout the bank
B. Revisions to procedures should be based on compliance expertise and not mere editing
C. Providing solutions to mitigate any identified risk
D. Assisting business units in developing or revising policies and procedures to reflect
current regulatory requirements
Answer: A, B

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NO.4 To be effective, compliance risk management professionals must design a framework to
ensure that bank management understands the risks and the steps that must be taken to
mitigate them. The many roles compliance professionals fill incorporate risk management
aspects including:
A. Coordinating regulatory exams to explain risks to examiners
B. Overseeing compliance training targeting higher risk areas
C. Tracking regulatory proposals and final rules to understand new risks
D. All of these
Answer: D

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NO.5 They also embrace the concept of risk-based compliance management. They expect
compliance management to be tailored to the bank, be it large or small, offering standard
or specialty financial services, simple or complex products lines, and adjusted as
appropriate for the customer base as that issued for the Bank Secrecy Act, also
establishes their expectations that a bank’s program be risk based. Who are they?
A. Outsourcing firms
B. Foreign financial service providers
C. Bank regulatory agencies
D. Risk management organizations
Answer: C

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Exam Code: AFE
Exam Name: IFPUG (Accredited Financial Examiner (AFE))
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 286 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-03-26

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NO.1 These are securities whose underlying assets consist of commercial mortgage loans. The
commercial loans are pooled, which brings diversification and liquidity to the asset class.
What are these?
A. Conventional securities
B. CMBS
C. Subordinated securities
D. Securitization
Answer: B

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NO.2 Many companies have developed an asset/liability management approach that is founded
on understanding product liabilities. Mortgages meet the primary objective of
maintaining:
A. A tight asset/liability match
B. A well-diversified core of investments
C. A tight asset/liability match with a well-diversified core of investments.
D. Real estate lending by insurance companies
Answer: C

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NO.3 There are many different sources of CMBS. Conduits and aggregate pools generally
consist of loans newly originated, purchased or held by investment bankers until the pool
is large enough for an efficient execution. Government agencies such as the Federal
National Mortgage Association (FNMA) and the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corp.
(FHLMC) are important sources of:
A. Residential financing
B. B2B financing.
C. Commercial financing.
D. Mortgage loans
Answer: A

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NO.4 A
is an amount of money, loaned at interest for a specified term, secured
by real estate and by its improvements such as buildings and infrastructure. This form of
instrument itself varies by jurisdiction, but the debt is always evidenced by an
accompanying promissory note.
A. Mortgage Loan
B. Real estate lending
C. Conventional Commercial Loans
D. CMBS
Answer: A

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NO.5 Prepayment of a conventional mortgage loan, prior to its specified maturity, is
discouraged through the general market acceptance of significant prepayment penalties.
Often these penalties are calculated so that when prevailing market interest rates are:
A. Lower than the rate on the loan being repaid the borrower has to make up the interest
rate differential and the lender is essentially “made whole” for a potential loss of interest.
B. Greater than the rate on the loan being repaid the borrower has to make up the interest
rate differential and the lender is essentially “made whole” for a potential loss of interest.
C. Equal to the rate on the loan being repaid the borrower has to make up the interest rate
differential and the lender is essentially “made whole” for a potential loss of interest.
D. Lower than the rate of interest being paid to the borrower has to make up the interest
rate differential and the lender is essentially “made whole” for a potential loss of interest.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: CRCM
Exam Name: IFPUG (CERTIFIED REGULATORY COMPLIANCE MANAGER (CRCM))
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 463 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-19

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NO.1 They also embrace the concept of risk-based compliance management. They expect
compliance management to be tailored to the bank, be it large or small, offering standard
or specialty financial services, simple or complex products lines, and adjusted as
appropriate for the customer base as that issued for the Bank Secrecy Act, also
establishes their expectations that a bank’s program be risk based. Who are they?
A. Outsourcing firms
B. Foreign financial service providers
C. Bank regulatory agencies
D. Risk management organizations
Answer: C

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NO.2 should include basic elements designed to understand and mitigate risk.
It usually includes:
Written program
Compliance-related policies and procedures
A. Tactical Compliance procedure
B. Rank solution
C. Compliance program
D. None of these
Answer: C

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NO.3 To be effective, compliance risk management professionals must design a framework to
ensure that bank management understands the risks and the steps that must be taken to
mitigate them. The many roles compliance professionals fill incorporate risk management
aspects including:
A. Coordinating regulatory exams to explain risks to examiners
B. Overseeing compliance training targeting higher risk areas
C. Tracking regulatory proposals and final rules to understand new risks
D. All of these
Answer: D

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NO.4 In a compliance program, tactical compliance procedures should be integrated into
business line procedures, such as how to deliver an Adverse Action Notice when an
application is declined. In this case:
A. Regulations should be applied consistently to procedures throughout the bank
B. Revisions to procedures should be based on compliance expertise and not mere editing
C. Providing solutions to mitigate any identified risk
D. Assisting business units in developing or revising policies and procedures to reflect
current regulatory requirements
Answer: A, B

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NO.5 A compliance professional’s responsibilities include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Understanding the business units operating environment and risk tolerance
B. Performing risk assessments with the assistance of business units to determine current
risk levels and risks associated with the bank’s products, lines of business, customers, and
locations, among other factors
C. Working with business units to ensure prompt corrective action for any detected errors
D. Assisting business lines with compliance training for employees, as needed
Answer: D

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Exam Code: I40-420
Exam Name: IFPUG (Certified Function Point Specialist )
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 249 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-10

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NO.1 An example of the purpose of an FP count is to provide:
A. input to the estimation process needed to determine the level of effort to develop the first release of an
application
B. a comparison of functionality delivered by two different suppliers' packages
C. determine the size of an application as part of the organization's effort to determine the size of its
software portfolio
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.2 The primary intent of an EI is to maintain:
A. One or more ILFs or alter the behavior of the application
B. One or more ILFs
C. One or more EIFs or alter the behavior of the application
D. One or more EIFs
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following statements about an External Input is true?
A. Has the primary intent to maintain one or more ILFs
B. An elementary process to hold data or control information from outside the boundary
C. Has the primary intent to alter the behavior of a transaction
D. Has the primary intent to reference one or more EIFs
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following statements regarding the counting scope is true?
A. It defines the set of Functional User Requirements to be included in the FP count
B. It always includes more than one application
C. It determines the purpose of the applications being counted
D. It defines a (sub) set of the modules being sized
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is a (are) valid example(s) of code data?
A. Substitution data
B. Static data
C. Valid values
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.6 An application FP count is defined as:
A. a measure of the current functions the application provides the user
B. the initial development project FP count
C. an enhancement project that alters the applications functions
D. the activity of applying this International Standard to measure the functional size of an application
Answer: D

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NO.7 An EI is defined as:
A. an elementary process that processes data sent from outside the application boundary
B. control information sent from outside the user view
C. an elementary process that processes data or control information sent from outside the application's
boundary
D. All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following is NOT an example of the purpose of a function point count?
A. To enable comparison of functionality delivered by two applications
B. To determine maintenance support cost per function point
C. To understand the percentage of lines of code that is being reused across three different applications
D. To determine the effort and duration of a development project
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following is an attribute used to represent relationships of one entity to another.?
A. Primary key
B. Secondary key
C. Foreign key
D. Domestic key
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is true about conversion functionality?
A. Transactional or data functions provided to convert data and /or provide other user specified
conversion requirements
B. Exists only during the development or enhancement of an application
C. Conversion functionality is outside the scope of FP counting
D. Both A and B
Answer: D

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NO.11 Control information is defined as data that:
A. defines an elementary process of the application being counted
B. influences an elementary process of the application being counted
C. controls an elementary process of the application being counted
D. does not influence an elementary process of the application being counted
Answer: B

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NO.12 What is a user identifiable group of logically related data or control information referenced by the
application, but maintained within the boundary of another application?
A. An ILF
B. An IIF
C. An EIF
D. An ELF
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following statements regarding functional size measurement is true?
A. Early functional size measurements can never change during design and coding phase
B. It is quite normal to identify additional functionality that was not specified in the original requirements in
the form of scope creep
C. It is not necessary to update the application functional size upon completion of an enhancement.
D. Both B and C
Answer: B

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NO.14 "Requirements specifically requested by the user to complete an elementary process" defines which of
the following terms?
A. Control information
B. Processing logic
C. Maintain
D. User identifiable
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following defines the purpose of a count?
A. Provides an answer to a business question, and it is the business question that determines the
purpose
B. Influences the positioning of the application between the software under review and the surrounding
software
C. Influences the type of FP count to answer the business problem under investigation
D. Provides an input to the estimation process needed to determine the level of effort required to develop
the first release of an application
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding an application functional size (FS)?
A. It provides a measure of the functionalities that an application provides to the user
B. It is never updated after the initial application installation
C. It is associated with an application's lifecycle
D. Both A and C
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which category (ies) of data entities is (are) usually identified to satisfy the Functional User
Requirements?
A. Business data
B. Reference data
C. Code data
D. Both A and B
Answer: D

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NO.18 What is an elementary process?
A. The smallest unit of activity that is meaningful to the developer
B. The largest unit of activity that is meaningful to the user
C. The smallest unit of activity that is meaningful to the user
D. The largest unit of activity that is meaningful to the developer
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following is NOT true of a boundary?
A. It encloses the logical data maintained by the application
B. It is the physical interface between the software under study and its users
C. It is dependent on the user's external business view of the application and is independent of technical
and/or implementation considerations
D. It defines what is external to the application
Answer: B

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NO.20 When counting DETs which of the following rules apply?
A. Count a DET for each recursive field on the ILF or EIF
B. Count a DET for each piece of data in an ILF or EIF required by the user to establish a relationship with
another ILF or EIF
C. Count a DET for each repeating field that is identical in format
D. Count a DET for each field that appears more than once in an ILF or EIF
Answer: B

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