2014年5月1日星期四

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NO.1 Which mode in the MDM Data Manager allows you to assign attributes to categories in a hierarchy?
A. Taxonomy mode
B. Record mode
C. Matching mode
D. Hierarchy mode
Answer: A

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NO.2 You can transfer lookup data from ERP and SRM to SRM-MDM. What data can only be transferred
from ERP to SRM-MDM?
A. Product categories
B. UOM ISO codes
C. Purchasing organizations
D. Currencies
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is used in MDM Import Manager to determine whether records are new or already exist in the
repository?
A. Value Conversion
B. Default Import Action
C. Record Filtering
D. Matching Field(s)
Answer: D

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NO.4 For which kind of auctions do you use proxy bidding?
A. For auctions without lots
B. For auctions without overall best bid validation
C. For auctions with bid decrements at the auction header
D. For auctions without reserve price
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which follow-on documents can be the result of an SRM confirmation of goods in the classic scenario.?
A. Acknowledgement and inbound delivery
B. Material document and accounting document
C. Inbound delivery and material documents
D. Accounting document and inbound delivery
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which SAP MDM component is used to schedule automated data imports?
A. MDM Import Manager
B. MDM Server
C. MDM Import Server
D. MDM Connector
Answer: C

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NO.7 What option in Import Manager is used to map 1 source field to multiple destination fields?
A. Compounding
B. Adding
C. Cloning
D. Renaming
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which documents are created for an invoice entered for a local purchase order in the standalone
scenario?
A. Accounting document in SRM
B. Invoice in ERP
C. Invoice in SRM
D. Accounting document in ERP
Answer: C,D

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NO.1 Regarding the object, TemSe, of the SAP spool system, which of the following statements are correct.?
(Choose two.)
A. TemSe stores, for example, spool data.
B. TemSe always stores the spool requests in the database.
C. The instance parameter "rspo/store_location" determines where TemSe data is stored.
D. TemSe is always an operating system file.
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Which tools in the SAP NetWeaver AS 7.00 ABAP and Java Stack are responsible for the registration
process in the System Landscape Directory (SLD)? (Choose two.)
A. The whole mechanism to register an ABAP based SAP system is event triggered. Once a change in
the configuration happens, a background job informs the SLD.
B. The transaction RZ21 allows the configuration of the SLD connection.
C. SAP systems based on AS Java can register to the SLD using the SLD Data Supplier Service in Visual
Administrator.
D. The main ABAP transaction to inform the SLD is RZ70. The SAP gateway is involved.
E. SAP systems based on AS Java cannot register to the SLD.
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 You are using the profile maintenance (transaction code RZ10) to configure profiles and profile
parameters of an AS ABAP+Java based SAP system. Which profiles of the system you can maintain in
RZ10?
A. You can maintain the default profile as well as the start and instance profiles of the ABAP+Java
application servers. However, you cannot maintain the start and instance profiles of the Java central
services instance.
B. Only the default profile and the start profiles can be maintained, because the instance profiles contain
AS Java relevant parameters which cannot be maintained by the ABAP programs used in transaction
RZ10.
C. All profiles (start profiles, instance profiles, default profile) of the system can be maintained.
Answer: A

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NO.4 In SAP NetWeaver 7.0, several components need the ABAP and the JAVA stack. The customer has
decided to install both stacks in one database. A default schema user is created for each stack. In which
Oracle database table are these users physically stored and how are they named? The SAP is LNX and
the instance number is 03. (Choose two.)
A. TablE.dba_users; JAVA schema owner: SAP<SCHEMA-ID>DB
B. TablE.dba_user; Java user: ORALNXDB
C. TablE.users; ABAP and JAVA Schema owner: SAPLNX
D. TablE.dba_users; ABAP schema owner: SAP<SCHEMA-ID>
E. TablE.dba_user; ABAP schema owner: ORALNX
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 The software component SAP ECC 6.0 runs on which of the following?
A. SAP NetWeaver Application Server 7.00
B. SAP Basis 4.6D
C. SAP Web Application Server 6.40
D. SAP NetWeaver Application Server 7.10
Answer: A

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NO.6 The Integrated Log Viewer is presented as a service of SAP NetWeaver AS Java. It provides runtime
control for working with log messages.
Which of the following statements about the Integrated Log Viewer is true?
A. The Integrated Log Viewer can merge logs within an SAP NetWeaver AS Java instance.
B. The Integrated Log Viewer provides options for log and trace configuration. You can add new locations
and categories and change the configuration of the existing ones.
C. Log Viewer is the right tool for setting and modifying Severity levels.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following statements is correct regarding transport domains and transport groups in
ABAP-based SAP Systems? (Choose two.)
A. All SAP Systems within one transport group have a common transport directory.
B. A transport domain consists of the client-independent table TDOM (the transport domain table), into
which all transports (exports or imports) in the SAP System are logged.
C. All SAP Systems in a transport domain must belong to the same transport group.
D. A transport domain can only be set up if more than one application server is installed.
E. All SAP Systems within one transport domain have RFC destinations (names beginning with "TMS...")
pointing to the same transport domain controller system.
Answer: A,E

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NO.8 Oracle database offers different types of indexes. Which are valid index types? (Choose two.)
A. Bitmap index
B. Unique master index
C. Dictionary index
D. Balanced tree (B*tree) index
Answer: A,D

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NO.1 Which statements are correct when using the Receiver File adapter to process XML
messages?
A. The messages are processed based on a poll cycle.
B. The adapter can convert the XML payload into a flat file.
C. The adapter can FTP the file to a remote directory.
D. The quality of service can be 'best effort' (BE) only.
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 You configure the sender RFC adapter to convert RFC calls from a sender to XML
messages. These
XML messages are then sent to the Integration Server or to the PCK.
What is the purpose of the RFC adapter parameter "Program ID"?
A. The Program ID is a unique identifier for outbound proxies.
B. The Program ID must uniquely describe the RFC sender communication channel in the
configured
application server gateway.
C. The Program ID identifies proxy classes for Service Interfaces.
D. The Program ID is used in correlation for binding abstract interfaces.
Answer: B

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NO.3 A special aspect in B2B business processes is that the business partners involved in
these processes
do not usually provide information about their internal system landscape.
Which configuration objects are relevant for B2B configuration?
A. Receiver Determination
B. Communication Party
C. Software Component Version (SWCV)
D. Communication Channel
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.4 The PI Mail adapter is used to send and receive emails. Which protocols are
supported?
A. SMTP
B. HTTP
C. IMAP4
D. POP3
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.5 If a system error occurs in a send step, an alert can be triggered for Alert Management
and the
integration process should then be terminated.
Where do you define the Alert Category for the appropriate Control Step?
A. Within the SLD
B. Within the transaction ALRTCATDEF on the Integration Server
C. Within the Enterprise Services Builder
D. Within the Process Editor
Answer: B

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NO.6 For the delivery mode of an integration process, you can choose between inbound
processing with or
without buffering.
Which of these statements correctly describes the Inbound processing mode?
A. SAP recommends the mode for inbound processing with buffering.
B. SAP recommends the mode for inbound processing without buffering.
C. If you select inbound processing without buffering, the qRFC entry returns an error when a
message is
to be delivered to a process instance for which no receive step is active.
D. If you select inbound processing with buffering and there is no active receive step
available to receive
an incoming message, the message is buffered in a separate, process-instance-specific
queue.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.7 The communication between the Integration Server and the backend applications can
be achieved
without adapters.
Which message protocol should you use for this communication type?
A. RFC-XML
B. PI-SOAP Protocol
C. File
D. JDBC 2.0
Answer: B

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NO.8 You have created a deadline branch. When the deadline has expired, the integration
process should be
canceled.
How can this be achieved?
A. In the deadline branch, insert a control step that cancels the process.
B. The process is automatically stopped once the deadline has expired.
C. As the process can only be stopped by the administrator, a control step that raises an alert
to inform
the administrator has to be inserted.
D. Insert a switch with an appropriate condition to stop the process.
Answer: A

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NO.1 When representing a cluster protection level as N+M:B, what is B? (Choose 1)
A. The number of recoverable disk failures.
B. The number of data blocks.
C. The number of recoverable node failures.
D. The number of data stripes.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following best describes a Network Provisioning rule? (Choose 1)
A. You can define one subnet per cluster and one pool per subnet.
B. You can define one subnet per cluster and multiple pools per subnet.
C. You can define multiple subnets per cluster and one pool per subnet.
D. You can define multiple subnets per cluster and multiple pools per subnet.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the maximum tape block size supported by OneFS 6.5.? (Choose 1)
A. 8 K
B. 64 KB
C. 128 KB
D. 256 KB
Answer: C

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NO.4 The unlicensed version of SmartPools enables you to do what? (Choose 1)
A. Automatically move files from one disk pool to another
B. Define a subgroup of nodes to allow 12000X nodes and 36000X nodes to reside in a single disk pool
C. Force writes into the virtual hard disks.
D. Block manually configured file policies.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following directory services is not supported by an Isilon cluster? (Choose 1)
A. Active Directory
B. LDAP
C. NIS
D. NIS+
E. All are supported.
Answer: D

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NO.6 How are disk pools provisioned? (Choose 1)
A. The cluster automatically creates disk pools.
B. By network provisioning rules.
C. By disk provisioning rules.
D. They must be manually created.
Answer: A

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NO.7 The NLM protocol is used in some NFS client connections.
What does the NLM protocol do? (Choose 1)
A. Provides file locks for NFS v2 and 3 clients
B. Provides file locks for CIFS clients
C. Provides file locks for NFS v2, 3, and 4 clients
D. Provides file locks for SMB v1,2, and 3 clients
Answer: A

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NO.8 How does an Isilon cluster running OneFS 6.5 enable file level access to Windows clients? (Choose 1)
A. Using SMB only
B. Using CIFS and SMB
C. Using CIFS and Samba
D. Using CIFS only
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 3000-2
Exam Name: ACSS Small and Medium Enterprise (SME) Communications
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Last Update: 2014-04-30

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Exam Code: 6006.1
Exam Name: Avaya Aura(TM) Communication Manager (R5.2.1) Implementation Exam
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Exam Code: 6104
Exam Name: Avaya Wireless LAN Implementation Exam
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Last Update: 2014-04-30

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NO.1 What are two ways of obtaining the RFA Module ID (MID) and System ID (SID)? (Choose two.)
A. From the CM Linux prompt issue the command statuslicense-V .
B. From the CM SAT issue the command list configuration software-versions .
C. From the CM Linux prompt issue the command systat .
D. From the CM SAT issue the command display system-parameters customer-options .
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 A Customer has 1200 IP phones in their solution and they are looking for redundancy and load
balancing How many CLAN s are recommended for their IP phone registration and signaling?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B

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NO.3 The Avaya G450 Media Gateway can be configured to function as a DHCP (Dynamic Host
Configuration Protocol) client DHCP client enable the G450 to receive an IP address from a DHCP server,
according to the DHCP client-server protocol. As an option, the G-450 DHCP client can also request to
receive which three types of IP-related information? (Choose three.)
A. a list all H 248 Media Gateways in the system
B. a Domain Name
C. a list of default routers
D. a list of all registered IP Phones
E. a list of available DNS servers
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.4 Before IPSI cards can become active on a new Communication Manager system, which screen must be
accessed to enable IPSI control of the Port Networks?
A. system-parameters ip-options
B. system-parameters ipsi-option
C. system-parameters port-networks
D. system-parameters ipserver-interface
Answer: D

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NO.5 A technician is testing calls from IP phones at a remote location operating on a G450VLSP gateway to
main location served by S83XXG450 over the WLAN Busy tones are received when multiple calls
between the two locations are already active. Two network regions and G711 and G729 codec server has
been set up Which two steps must be taken to ensure the branch IP phones are using he minimum WAN
bandwidth when calling main location stations?
(Choose two.)
A. Assign branch IP Phones to the G450 LSP as its call server in ip-network-region 2 form.
B. Assign G.729 as primary codec in the Station Form for the branch IP phones.
C. Use the ip-network-map form to assign the branch IP phones to network region2.
D. Create a third Codec Set and assign to the G450 Gateway in ip-network-region 2 form.
E. Verify calls between NRI and NR2 use G.729 Codec in ip-network-region 1 form.
Answer: CE

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NO.6 Which three settings need to be configured on a Layer 2 device? (Choose three.)
A. RIP
B. port speed
C. IP address
D. default gateway
F. routing interface
Answer: B,C ,D

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NO.7 Which two statements about the installing and cabling of the Media Gateway G650 are true?(Choose
two.)
A. Mount the A carrier at the bother of the rack
B. Mount the A carnet in the uppermost position in the rack
C. In a multiple Media Gateway GB50 configuration, the G650s an be allocated in different racks if long
TDMLAN cables are used to interconnect the 850s.
D. In a multiple Media Gateway G650 configuration put the G65s in the rack with no vertical pace between
them.
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 At a new deployment the customer has a total of 2,000 subscribers at their main location. They do not
need redundancy in their solution Which Media ServerMedia Gateway combination should be used for
this deployment.?
A. S8800 Simplex with G450
B. S8800D with G450
C. S8300D with G430
D. S8800 Duplex with G650
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 132-S-1002.3
Exam Name: Avaya Sales Certification Specialist
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Last Update: 2014-04-30

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Exam Code: 133-S-713
Exam Name: Avaya Proactive Contact Solutions Implementation Exam (beta)
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Exam Code: 3104
Exam Name: Avaya one-X® UC Soft Clients Implementation and Maintenance Exam
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NO.1 .A supervisor reports that the data in Internet Monitor is only updating every two minutes. The
supervisor requests the update time be changed to every 30 seconds. Which configuration field in
master.cfg must be changed?
A. IMONDISPLAY
B. SURFREFRESH
C. IMONREFRESH
D. AUTORELPOLLTIME
Answer: C

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NO.2 .Which configuration file on the CPU contains digital switch port addressing information?
A. locale.cfg
B. opmon.cfg
C. dgswitch.cfg
D. phonefmt.cfg
Answer: C

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NO.3 .Which voicemsg.cfg setup is correct to use on an Avaya Proactive Contact with CTI?
A. 23:pf_msg1:41031:Female:Outbound:Voice:pf_msg1
B. 14:41039:mwait1:Male:Outbound:Voice:mwait1
C. 41017:19:infwait3:Female:Inbound:Voice:41017
D. 189:virt1m:Male:Virtual:Voice:41026
Answer: A

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NO.4 .Which important function should a supervisor perform before running jobs for the day?
A. Perform a backup of the system.
B. Verify that downloads were received and processed.
C. Run reports on the previous day's calling.
D. Restart the Proactive Contact application.
Answer: B

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NO.5 .When configuring Avaya CM to work with Proactive Contact with CTI, what must be activated on
Avaya CM to allow for communication of agent changes on the PBX?
A. Status agent
B. Agent states
C. Agent API
D. DLG Service
Answer: B

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NO.6 .Which two commands are used to configure the cti_passwd.cfg file for an Avaya Proactive Contact
with CTI with Agent Blending? (Choose two.)
A. cti_passwd
B. cti_passwd
C. cti_passwd -b
D. cti_passwd
Answer: C,D

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NO.7 .What is the default method of file transfer for Avaya Proactive Contact 4.X?
A. ftp
B. sftp
C. ZMODEM
D. ssh
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which Avaya software is used to provide consolidated reporting with Avaya Proactive Contact 4.X
and other Avaya communication solutions?
A. CMS
B. WebLM
C. Avaya IQ
D. Analyst
Answer: C

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2014年4月29日星期二

GB0-183 Exam PDF, GB0-183 Practice Test, GB0-183 Exam Dumps

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Exam Code: GB0-183
Exam Name: Huawei-3Com Certified Network Engineer
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NO.1 25
A. FTP
B. TFTP
C. Telnet
D. SMTP
D

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NO.2 A. 0
B. 10
C. 30
D.
A

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NO.3 ISDN
A.
1
NT1
B.
2
NT2
C. 1
TE1
D. 2
TE2
E.
TA
ABCDE

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NO.4 RIP
520
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. IP
D. PPP
B

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NO.5 Quidway VRP
A. ping
B. tracert
C. show path
D. display path
B

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NO.6 Quidway
vrp 3.4
A. write
B. save
C. copy
D. reset
B

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NO.7 TCP
T. True
F. False
F

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NO.8 A.
B.
C.
D.
D

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