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Exam Code: HP2-Q01
Exam Name: HP (Servicing HP Desktops, Workstations, and Notebooks)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 97 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-04-28

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NO.1 .After creating an OS Restore CD with Backup and Recovery Manager, you are unable to create an
OS Restore ISO image
A. The OS must be validated and regenerated by calling HP
B. Once a set of Recovery Media iscreated, the OS vendor must provide an ISO code
C. Once a set of Recovery Media is created, you can no longer create ISO image
D. The OS must be validated and regenerated on HP web site
Answer: C

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NO.2 .Which devices can be used in the external USB port? (Select two)
A. PCI card
B. monitor
C. CD/DVD
D. hard disk
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 .You upgrade the BIOS to the current version. Customers logs in and discover that a specific software
application does not work.
A. Downgrade the BIOS to the previous version
B. Contact HP for a replacement system board
C. Contact HP for a replace BIOS chip
D. Upgrade the affected software application
Answer: A

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NO.4 .Prior to creating a set of recovery disks, using the HP Backup and Recovery Manager, a customer's.
A. The new hard drive will come with the OS already installed
B. HP can provide a set of recovery disks
C. Use the recovery media created on another PC of the same model
D. Use the recover OS option within the BIOS
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 .Your customer indicates that Windows in not recognizing their MultiBay hard disk drive. What can be
done first to isolate this problem?
A. Set the MultiBay hard disk drive as a slave
B. Reinstal the factory image
C. MultiBay is not an HP supported configuration
D. Reseat the MultiBay hard disk drive
Answer: D

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NO.6 .What is an adequate ESD precaution?
A. Touch a metallic portion of the case to establish ground
B. Plug the computer into a power outlet
C. Put on a grounded wrist strap
D. Carry electronic parts in a plastic bag
Answer: C

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NO.7 .Where can the embedded SATA RAID be configured on desktops and workstations?
A. with controller configuration software
B. in the embedded controller BIOS
C. in the system BIOS
D. F12 RAID configuration
Answer: C

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NO.8 .Where would you confirm a spare part number?
A. HP PartSurfer
B. device manager
C. HP parts library
D. Windows Control Panel
Answer: A

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NO.9 .When a processor display a temperature warning, what do you do first?
A. Replace the cache
B. Reseat the processor
C. Check the environment
D. Install a new processor fan
Answer: C

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NO.10 .What tool do you use to test ESD equipment?
A. volt meter
B. osciloscope
C. ohm meter
D. amp meter
Answer: C

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NO.11 .The operating system doesn't load. What is the first step you should take to determine if a third-party
component is related to the problem?
A. Replace the third party component
B. Remove the third party component
C. Call the third party vendor's support line
D. Update the component drivers/software
Answer: B

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NO.12 .You are performing a service call to replace a failed hard disk drive in a factory. Water form the
factory's manufacturing process has cover the hard disk drive. How does this environmental condition
affect the system warranty?
A. The warranty does not cover damage due to environmental conditions
B. An accidental damage warranty must be purchase after damage occurs
C. The warranty is unaffected by environmental issues
D. Environmental issues void warranty of diskette drives, mice and keyboards only
Answer: A

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NO.13 .Your customer is trying to configure extended monitor support across two monitors and ******
A. OSD settings
B. Display BIOS
C. display proprieties
D. system BIOS
Answer: C

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NO.14 .Your customer complains about a short battery life on their notebook. What do you do first?
A. Fully drain and charge the battery
B. Tell them to use power only
C. Replace the battery
D. Order a high capacity battery
Answer: A

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NO.15 .What is the primary benefit of HP 3D DriveGuard?
A. it protects hard drive from moisture damage
B. it detects sudden motion and temporarily stops hard disk
C. it encrypts the hard disk drive data
D. it enhances Windows Aero security performance
Answer: B

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NO.16 .Your customer is having problems after installing memory in their computer. What should they do?
A. DPS test
B. Event Viewer
C. Device Manager
D. Task Manager
Answer: A

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NO.17 .Windows XP computer stops responding during startup. How could you isolate the cause with
minimal impact to the customer?
A. Replace the hard drive
B. Restore the factory image
C. Examine the win.ini file
D. Enable boot logging
Answer: D

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NO.18 .Your customer is experiencing intermittent lockups on a computer kept inside. What is most likely
cause?
A. vibration
B. temperature
C. ESD
D. altitude
Answer: B

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NO.19 .Your customer's computer reboots with no warning. What should you try first to help isolate this?
(Select two)
A. Replace the system board and test
B. Remove any third party hardware
C. Check system event log
D. Restore the unit and reinstall
Answer: B,C

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NO.20 .What can you do with a MultiBay hard disk drive?
A. Increase the size of the existing hard disk drive
B. Attach a SCSI drive
C. Install an additional hard disk drive
D. Daisy chain multiple hard disk drives
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 156-815.71
Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Managed Security Expert R70)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 182 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-04-27

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NO.1 When debugging the fwm process at the MDS level, what file is created?
A. fwm.log
B. mds.error
C. mds.log
D. fwm.elg
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following systems would meet the MINIMUM requirements for an MDS.?
A. SecurePlatform, 10 GB hard drive
B. SecurePlatform, 2-GB hard drive, 8 MB memory
C. Solaris 9, 4-GB hard drive, 1 GB memory
D. Linux RHEL 5, 2.4 kernel, 4-GB hard drive, 4-GB memory
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which operating system listed supports running a Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 MDS, but
has a limitation in the number of virtual IP addresses which can be assigned to a given interface?
A. Red Hat Enterprise Linux
B. Windows 2003 Server
C. SecurePlatform
D. Solaris
Answer: D

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NO.4 A Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 MDS is supported on which of the following platforms?
A. 1, 2, and 3
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 1, 2, and 4
Answer: C

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NO.5 When does a SIC certificate expire for CMA/MDS?
A. After 3 years
B. After 5 years
C. The interval is configurable.
D. After 1 year
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following statements is TRUE about Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1?
A. Provider-1 encrypts all traffic among modules - so no firewall is necessary to protect the Provider-1
system.
B. The MDS Manager has a built-in firewall for the Provider-1 system, protecting the MDS Containers.
C. The added security of a firewall to protect the Provider-1 system is difficult to implement, and is not
recommended.
D. A separately managed Security Gateway is recommended to protect the Provider-1 environment.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Upon boot, where is the script for the automatic start of the MDS processes located?
A. /etc/init.d
B. /var/init.d
C. etc/init.D
D. var/etc/init.d
Answer: A

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NO.8 Communication between the MDG and the MDS is secured in what way?
A. IKE encryption using shared secret
B. Configurable third-party authentication mechanism
C. Username and Password authentication
D. SSL initiated using SIC certificate exchange
Answer: D

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NO.9 On which SecurePlatform kernel version is Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 R71 built?
A. 2.4.18
B. 2.6.18-92
C. 2.4.21-21
D. RHEL 3
Answer: B

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NO.10 When a NOC firewall separates the Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 MDS machine and the
MDG (as shown below), what must be done to allow the MDG to connect to the MDS?
Modify the NOC Security Gateway Rule Base to allow:
A. RPC traffic for the MDG.
B. CPD and CPD_amon traffic to pass between the MDG and the MDS.
C. UDP traffic for the MDG.
D. CPMI traffic to pass between the MDG and the MDS.
Answer: D

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NO.11 What is the name for the interface connecting CMA Virtual IPs?
A. Leading VIP Interface
B. VIP Lounge Interface
C. Main External Interface
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which one of the processes runs on the MDS Level?
A. fwm mds
B. fgd
C. iked
D. vpnd
Answer: A

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NO.13 Where do the Global Policy database files reside in an MDS environment?
A. $CPDIR/conf
B. $MDSDIR/database
C. $MDSDIR/conf/mdsdb
D. $MDSDIR/conf
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following ports is used by CPMI to communicate between Multi-Domain Management
with Provider-1 modules?
A. TCP port 260
B. TCP port 264
C. TCP port 18191
D. TCP port 18190
Answer: D

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NO.15 What directory is shared between MDS and CMA?
A. $FWDIR/log
B. $FWDIR/database
C. $FWDIR/bin
D. $FWDIR/conf
Answer: C

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NO.16 What information can NOT be obtained from the mdsstat output?
A. Hostname of the MDS
B. Up / down status
C. IP address of the CMA
D. PID number FWD
Answer: A

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NO.17 What directory would you find all the configuration files related to the CMA "Customer_1"?
A. /opt/CPmds-R71/Customer_1/
B. /opt/CPmds-R71/customers/Customer_1/CPsuite-R71/conf
C. /opt/CPmds-R71/customers/Customer_1/CPsuite-R71/fw1/conf
D. /opt/CPmds-R71/customers/Customer_1/CPsuite-R71/
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following are valid reasons for using Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 instead of
Management Servers?
A. 3 and 4
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 1 and 4
Answer: D

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NO.19 When debugging the fwm process at the MDS level, what file is created?
A. $FWDIR/log/fwm.elg and fwm.log
B. /var/opt/CPsuite-R71/fw1/log/mds.elg and /var/opt/CPmds-R71/log/mds.log
C. /var/opt/CPsuite-R71/fw1/log/fwm.elg and fwm.log
D. $CPDIR/log/debug.elg
Answer: B

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NO.20 All of the following can be configured on a Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 MDS, EXCEPT:
A. Analyze logs
B. Firewall Module
C. Firewall Manager
D. Customer Logging Module
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 156-915-70
Exam Name: CheckPoint (CCSE-R70-Upgrade)
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Total Q&A: 243 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-04-27

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NO.1 The London office just upgraded their DNS Gateway needs with the new settings.
What would be the
best way for Henry to change the DNS settings for the London s Gateway?
A. Edit the Canada profile
B. Edit the gateways DNS settings from the edit gateway, then selecting the DNS tab
C. DNS settings for that gateway cannot be changed
D. Edit the Europe profile
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the purpose of the pre-defined exclusions Included with Eventia Analyzer and
IPS Event
Analysis R7P?
A. To give samples of how to write your own exclusion.
B. As a base for starling and building exclusions
C. To allow Eventia Analyzer and IPS Event Analysis R70 to function property with all other
R70 release
devices
D. To avoid incorrect event generation by the default IPS event definition, a scenario that
may occur in
deployments that include Security Gateways of versions prior to R70
Answer: D

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NO.3 John is the MultiCorp Security Administrator. If he suggests a change in the firewall
configuration, he
must submit his proposal to David, a Security manager. One day David is out of the office
and john
submits his proposal to peter, surprisingly, Peter is not able to approve the proposal the
system does not
permit him to do so (See figure below)
Next day David is back and he can carry out this operation.
Both the David and peter have accounts as administrators in the Security management
Server and both
have the read/write all permission. What is the reason for the difference? Choose the best
answer.
A. There were some hardware/software issues at the Security management Server on the
first day.
B. Peter was not log on to system for a long time.
C. The attribute manage administrators was not assigned to peter.
D. The specific SmartWorkflow read/write permissions were assigned to David only.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following is a supported deployment for Connectra?
A. IPSO 4.9 build 88
B. VMWare ESX
C. Solaris 10
D. Windows server 2007
Answer: B

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NO.5 From the following output of cphaprob state, which ClusterXL mode is this?
A. New mode
B. Multicast mode
C. Legacy mode
D. Unicast mode
Answer: D

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NO.6 What are the SmartProvisioning Policy Status indicators?
A. OK, Down, Up, Synchronized
B. OK. Waiting, Out of Sync, Not Installed, Not communicating
C. OK, Unknown, Not Installed, May be out of date
D. OK, Waiting, Unknown, Not Installed, Not Updated, May be out of date
Answer: D

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NO.7 You are trying to configure Directional VPN Rule Match in the Rule Base. But the
match column does
not have the option to see the directional match. You see the following window. What must
you enable to
see the Directional match?
A. VPN Directional Match on the Gateway object's VPN tab
B. Advanced Routing on each Security Gateway
C. VPN Directional Match on the VPN advanced Window, m Global Properties
D. Directional_match (True) in the objects_5_0 file on Security management Server
Answer: C

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NO.8 When checkpoint product is used to create and save changes to a Log consolidation
policy?
A. Security Management Server
B. Eventia Reporter Client
C. SmartDashboard Log Consolidator
D. Eventia Reporter Server
Answer: D

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NO.9 You want VPN traffic to match packets from internal interfaces- You also want the
traffic to exit the
Security Gateway bound for all site-to-site VPN Communities, including Remote Access
Communities.
How should you configure the VPN match rule?
A. Communities > communities
B. Internal_clear > External_Clear
C. Internal_clear > All_GwTogw
D. Internal_clear > All_communities
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following is TRUE concerning unnumbered VPN Tunnel Interfaces
(VTIs)?
A. VTIs must be assigned a proxy interface.
B. VTIs can only be physical, not loopback.
C. Local IP addresses are not configured, remote IP addresses are configured.
D. VTIs are only supported on Secure Platform.
Answer: C

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NO.11 You believe Phase 2 negotiations are failing while you are attempting to configure a
site-to-site VPN
with one of your firm's business partners. Which SmartConsole application should you use to
confirm your
suspicions?
A. SmartDashboard
B. SmartView Tracker
C. SmartUpdate
D. SmartView Status
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following commands will stop acceleration on a Security Gateway
running on Secure
Platform?
A. splat_accel off
B. fwacceX off
C. perf_pack off
D. fwaceel off
Answer: D

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NO.13 What is the benefit to running Eventia Analyzer in Learning Mode?
A. There is no Eventia Analyzer Learning Mode
B. To run Eventia Analyzer, with a step-by-step online configuration guide for training/setup
purpose
C. To run Eventia Analyzer with preloaded sample data in a test environment
D. To generate a report with system Event Policy modification suggestions
Answer: D

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NO.14 Laura notices the Microsoft Visual Basic kill Bits protection is sent to inactive. She
wants to set the
micro soft Visual Basic Kill bits protection and all other low performance impact protection to
prevent. She
asks her manager for approval and he stated she can turn these on. But he Laura to make
sure no high
performance impact protections are limited on while changing this setting.
Using the output below, how would Laura change the default-protection on performance
impact
protections classified as low from inactive to prevent while still meeting her other criteria?
A. Go to profiles > Default_protection and unlock Do not activate protections with
performance impact to
medium or above
B. Go to profiles > Default_protection and select Do not activate protections with performance
impact to
low or above
C. Go to profiles > Default_protection and select Do not activate protections with
performance impact to
medium or above
D. Go to profiles > Default_protection and unlock Do not activate protections with
performance impact to
high or above
Answer: C

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NO.15 Reporter reports can be used to analyze data from a penetration-testing regimen in all
of the following
examples, EXCEPT
A. Possible worm/malware activity.
B. Tracking attempted port scans.
C. Analyzing traffic patterns against public resources.
D. Analyzing access attempts via social-engineering.
Answer: D

CheckPoint   156-915-70   156-915-70   156-915-70

NO.16 You have selected the event port scan from internal network in Eventia Analyzer , to
detect an event
when 30 ports have occurred when 60 seconds. You want to detect two ports scans from a
host within 10
seconds of each other. How would you accomplish this?
A. You cannot set Eventia Analyzer to detect two port scans within 10 seconds of each other.
B. Select the two port-scan detections as a new event.
C. Select the two port-scan detections as a sub event.
D. Select the two port-scan detections as an exception.
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which specific R70 GUI would you use to view the length of time a TCP connection
was open?
A. SmartView Tracker
B. SmartView Status
C. SmartView Monitor
D. Eventia Reporter
Answer: C

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NO.18 Using IPS, how do you notify the Security Administrator that malware is scanning
specific ports?
By enabling:
A. Malware Scan protection
B. Sweep Scan protection
C. Host Port Scan
D. Malicious Code Protector
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-915-70   156-915-70

NO.19 Which Security Servers can perform authentication tasks, but CANNOT perform
content security
tasks?
A. RLOGIN
B. FTP
C. HTTPS
D. HTTP
Answer: A

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NO.20 What is a task of the IPS Event Analysis Server?
A. Assign a severity level to an event.
B. Display the received events.
C. Forward what is known as an event to the IPS Event Analysis server
D. Analyze each IPS log entry as it enters the Log server.
Answer: D

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NO.21 Which of the following is not accelerated by SecureXL?
A. FTP
B. HTTPS
C. Telnet
D. SSH
Answer: A

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NO.22 The We-Make-Widgets
company has purchased twenty UTM-1 Edge appliances for their remote
offices. Kim decides the best way to manage those appliances is to use SmartProvisioning
and create a
profile they can all use. List the order of steps Kim would go through to add the Dallas Edge
appliance to
the remote Office profile Using the output below.
A. 6, 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
B. 4, 1, 3, 6, 5, 2
C. 6, 3, 1, 4, 5, 2
D. 4, 3, 1, 6, 5, 2
Answer: B

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NO.23 In which case is a Sticky Decision Function relevant?
A. Load Sharing
Unicast
B. Load Balancing
Forward
C. High Availability
D. Load Sharing - Multicast
Answer: D

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NO.24 David wants to manage hundreds of gateways using a central management tool.
What tool would David
use to accomplish his goal?
A. SmartProvisioning
B. SmartBlade
C. SmartDashboard
D. SmartLSM
Answer: B

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NO.25 To change the default port of the Management Portal.
A. Edit the masters, conf file on the Portal server
B. Modify the file cp_httpd_admin. conf.
C. Run sysconfig and change the management interface
D. Re-initialize SIC.
Answer: B

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NO.26 You are Connectra administrator. Your users complain that their outlook Web Access
is running
extremely slowly, and their overall browsing experience configures to worsen. You suspect it
could be a
logging problem. Which of the following log file does CheckPoint recommended you purge?
A. Httpd*.log
B. Event_ws.log
C. Mod_ws_owd.log
D. Alert_owd.log
Answer: A

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NO.27 You have pushed a policy to your firewall and you are not able to access the firewall.
What command
will allow you to remove the current policy from the machine?
A. fw purge policy
B. fw fetch policy
C. fw purge active
D. fw unload local
Answer: D

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NO.28 What is the maximum number of cores supported by CoreXL?
A. 6
B. 8
C. 4
D. 12
Answer: B

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NO.29 With Eventia Analyzer, what is the analyzer Server's function?
A. Generate a threat analysis report from the Analyzer database.
B. Analyze log entries, looking for Event Policy patterns.
C. Displays received threats and tune the Events Policy.
D. Assign seventy levels to events.
Answer: B

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NO.30 Which type of routing relies on a VPN Tunnel interface (VT1) to route traffic?
A. Subnet-based VPN
B. Route-based VPN
C. Host-based VPN
D. Domain-based VPN
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 156-215.13
Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Administrator - GAiA)
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Total Q&A: 358 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-04-27

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NO.1 The customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows 2008 server
as the SmartConsole and a second server running SecurePlatform as both Security Management
Server and the Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):
A. Stand-Alone Installation
B. Distributed Installation
C. Unsupported configuration
D. Hybrid Installation
Answer: A

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NO.2 You manage a global network extending from your base in Chicago to Tokyo, Calcutta and
Dallas. Management wants a report detailing the current software level of each Enterprise class
Security Gateway. You plan to take the opportunity to create a proposal outline, listing the most
cost-effective way to upgrade your Gateways. Which two SmartConsole applications will you use to
create this report and outline?
A. SmartLSM and SmartUpdate
B. SmartView Tracker and SmartView Monitor
C. SmartView Monitor and SmartUpdate
D. SmartDashboard and SmartView Tracker
Answer: D

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NO.3 The INSPECT engine inserts itself into the kernel between which two OSI model layers?
A. Physical and Data
B. Session and Transport
C. Data and Network
D. Presentation and Application
Answer: C

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NO.4 When launching SmartDashboard, what information is required to log into R76?
A. User Name, Management Server IP , certificate fingerprint file
B. User Name, Password, Management Server IP
C. Password, Management Server IP
D. Password, Management Server IP , LDAP Server IP
Answer: D

CheckPoint original questions   156-215.13   156-215.13

NO.5 Your bank's distributed R76 installation has Security Gateways up for renewal. Which
SmartConsole application will tell you which Security Gateways have licenses that will expire within
the next 30 days?
A. SmartView Tracker
B. SmartPortal
C. SmartUpdate
D. SmartDashboard
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-215.13 exam prep   156-215.13

NO.6 You believe Phase 2 negotiations are failing while you are attempting to configure a site-to-site
VPN with one of your firm's business partners. Which SmartConsole application should you use to
confirm your suspicions?
A. SmartDashboard
B. SmartView Tracker
C. SmartUpdate
D. SmartView Status
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following is a hash algorithm?
A. DES
B. IDEA
C. MD5
D. 3DES
Answer: A

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NO.8 A digital signature:
A. Provides a secure key exchange mechanism over the Internet.
B. Automatically exchanges shared keys.
C. Guarantees the authenticity and integrity of a message.
D. Decrypts data to its original form.
Answer: B

CheckPoint test questions   156-215.13   156-215.13

NO.9 UDP packets are delivered if they are ___________.
A. referenced in the SAM related dynamic tables
B. a valid response to an allowed request on the inverse UDP ports and IP
C. a stateful ACK to a valid SYN-SYN/ACK on the inverse UDP ports and IP
D. bypassing the kernel by the forwarding layer of ClusterXL
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which SmartConsole component can Administrators use to track changes to the Rule Base?
A. SmartView Monitor
B. SmartReporter
C. WebUI
D. SmartView Tracker
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which component functions as the Internal Certificate Authority for R76?
A. Security Gateway
B. Management Server
C. Policy Server
D. SmartLSM
Answer: C

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NO.12 Message digests use which of the following?
A. SHA-1 and MD5
B. IDEA and RC4
C. SSL and MD4
D. DES and RC4
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following are available SmartConsole clients which can be installed from the R76
Windows CD? Read all answers and select the most complete and valid list.
A. SmartView Tracker, CPINFO, SmartUpdate
B. SmartView Tracker, SmartDashboard, SmartLSM, SmartView Monitor
C. SmartView Tracker, SmartDashboard, CPINFO, SmartUpdate, SmartView Status
D. Security Policy Editor, Log Viewer, Real Time Monitor GUI
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following uses the same key to decrypt as it does to encrypt?
A. Asymmetric encryption
B. Symmetric encryption
C. Certificate-based encryption
D. Dynamic encryption
Answer: A

CheckPoint   156-215.13 answers real questions   156-215.13

NO.15 The customer has a small Check Point installation, which includes one SecurePlatform server
working as the SmartConsole, and a second server running Windows 2008 as both Security
Management Server and Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):
A. Distributed Installation
B. Stand-Alone Installation
C. Hybrid Installation
D. Unsupported configuration
Answer: D

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NO.1 When you create configuration items (CIs) for notifications, you distinguish special object contacts from
normal ones by using the:
A. number (#) character
B. percent (%) character
C. ampersand (&) character
D. commercial AT (@) character
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which code calls a web form?
A. Resource ID
B. Resource name
C. Resource pointer
D. Resource reference
Answer: B

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NO.3 When implementing an architecture that includes CA Service Desk rl2 with CA Workflow, which default
port assignments apply? (Choose two)
A. CA Workflow Tomcat Startup: 8090
B. CA Workflow Tomcat Shutdown: 8095
C. CA Service Desk Tomcat Startup: 5250
D. CA Service Desk Tomcat Shutdown: 9085
Answer: A,B

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NO.1 A summary alert notification includes: (Choose three)
A. time stamps
B. transaction traces
C. a summary alert name
D. the current state of the summary alert
E. details of the user-defined time period for checking the current state of each underlying simple alert
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.2 CA Customer Experience Manager (CA CEM) records specific client transactions and never stores
private parameters. An example of a private parameter is a:
A. Password
B. client name
C. transaction name
D. transaction signature
Answer: A

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NO.3 You want to configure the list of keys that identify URL Groups in this agent. Which configuration
parameter will enable you to do this?
A. introscope.agent.urlgroup.keys
B. introscope.autoprobe.directivesFile
C. introscope.agent.urlgroup.group.<key>.format
D. introscope.agent.urlgroup.group.<key>.pathprefix
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which information can you view using the Summary View tab of the CA Introscope Transaction Tracer?
(Choose three)
A. Color codes, which indicate call durations
B. The number of times a URL was accessed
C. The number of milliseconds to complete the call
D. The number of milliseconds required for the fastest call completion
E. The number of transaction components affected, shown using a hierarchical format
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.5 In CA Customer Experience Manager (CA CEM), the name of the file used for local authentication is:
A. users.xml
B. passwd.xml
C. security.xml
D. authenticate.xml
Answer: B

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NO.6 A group of business transactions in a CA Customer Experience Manager (CA CEM) domain is known as
a:
A. business service
B. business transaction
C. transaction parameter
D. transaction component
Answer: A

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NO.7 CA Introscope ChangeDetector configuration properties are stored in: A. Change-detector.xml
B. IntroscopeAgent.properties
C. ChangeDetector-config.xml
D. ChangeDetector-properties.xml
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which file should you create to change certain default CA Customer Experience Manager (CA CEM)
settings, such as baseline duration?
A. Web.xml
B. TESS -default. Properties
C. EM-baseline.properties
D. TESS-customer.properties
Answer: A

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NO.9 CA Introscopy holds historical data in multiple tiers. What is a characteristic of data held in Tier 1?
A. Is used in reporting
B. Is used for incident analysis
C. Is used in capacity planning
D. Is older and configured for lower resolutions
Answer: B

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NO.10 You want to set up CA Introscopy so that users are always using the most up-to-date version of the
client. Which mechanism enables you to do this?
A. WebView
B. Workstation
C. Transaction Tracer
D. Web Start Workstation
Answer: D

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NO.11 In the Dashboard Editor, the palette consists of static content tools and:
A. Data viewers
B. View creators
C. Data view creators
D. Dynamic content tools
Answer: A

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NO.12 Summary alert S is made up of single alerts 1, 2, and 3. Currently, the states of the alerts are as
follows: Alert 1: caution
Alert 2: caution
Alert 3: danger
What is the color of alert S?
A. Red
B. White
C. Green
D. Yellow
Answer: A

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NO.13 When default metrics are generated during application execution, the probes:
A. Retain data until agents collect it.
B. Report data directly to the Enterprise Manager.
C. Report data to agents, which in turn pass it to the Enterprise Manager.
D. Report data to agents, which retain it until the Enterprise Manager collects it.
Answer: C

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NO.14 CA Introscope collects performance data from applications in a Java Virtual Machine (JVM) or .NET
Common Language Runtime (CLR). Which feature of the CA Introscope architecture is responsible for
collecting this data?
A. Agent
B. Enterprise Manager
C. Command Line Workstation
D. Environment Performance Agent (EPA)
Answer: A

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NO.15 In the process that defines how the default metrics are generated in CA Introscope, what occurs after
an Agent obtains a list of applicable ProbeBuilder Directive (PBD) files from the IntroscopeAgent.profile
file and parses their directives?
A. The Agent collects performance and execution data.
B. The Probes report performance and execution data to the Agent.
C. The Agent reports Metrics over the network to the Enterprise Manager.
D. The Agent inserts Probes into the Java or .NET classes based on the instructions found in the PBD
files.
Answer: B

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NO.16 What is the Metric name in this Metric path?
H04|VVAS_Node|Server 0|Servlets|SeatServlet:Stall Count
A. H04
B. Servlets
C. Stall Count
D. WAS_Node
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which type of file stores all items contained in a management module?
A. Zip
B. Package (PKG)
C. Java Archive (JAR)
D. Tape archive (TAR)
Answer: C

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NO.18 You need an instruction in your Probe Builder Directive (PBD) to skip monitoring of all get() methods in
a given Tracer Group. Which command will do this?
A. SkipClass
B. SkipClassForFlag
C. SkipMethodForFlag
D. SkipMethodForClass
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which graph displays the most information within a single view?
A. Dashboard
B. Box-Whisker
C. Defect Pareto
D. Standard Deviation
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which statement about the Historical Query Viewer is TRUE?
A. It can be used to view errors from a command line.
B. It is a web-based alternative to the Live Error Viewer.
C. It can be used to open XML files containing error data.
D. It is a free open source utility that users without CA Introscope can use to view error data produced by
CA Introscope.
Answer: C

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NO.21 Each element in a report template maps to a single:
A. Metric
B. PDF file
C. Dashboard
D. Metric grouping
Answer: A

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NO.22 What is a characteristic of the CA Introscope boundary blame feature?
A. Boundary blame is disabled by default.
B. Disabling Boundary blame in an agent will generate fewer metrics than an agent with boundary blame
enabled.
C. The boundary blame metric tree provides visibility to each component in the stack, showing a called
component for every calling component.
D. Boundary blame gives visibility into the front-end components and the back-end component with all
components between these two not in the blame stack.
Answer: D

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NO.23 Which statement about tracer groups is TRUE?
A. They are defined in XML files.
B. You can activate component tracing at the class level only.
C. After you activate component tracing, you need to restart the Enterprise Manager.
D. Agent performance can be improved by modifying the default metric set to monitor only the necessary
classes.
Answer: D

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NO.24 You have decided that it is unnecessary to show socket-level metrics in your system and want to
disable the SocketTracing tracer group. Which command will enable you to do this?
A. TurnOff: SocketTracing
B. //TurnOn: SocketTracing
C. --TurnOn: SocketTracing
D. #TurnOn: SocketTracing
Answer: D

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NO.25 An element that is a logical grouping of metrics treated as a single element is known as a:
A. Report
B. Calculator
C. Dashboard
D. Metric Grouping
Answer: D

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NO.26 While viewing Investigator, you notice that metric values are acceptable, but you want to determine
whether there are any outlying Servlet Response Times exceeding threshold limits. Which Workstation
feature enables you to do this?
A. Metric data
B. Boundary Blame
C. View Historical Data
D. Minimum and Maximum Metric values
Answer: D

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NO.27 If you want to limit an Event Database search to error events only, which query should you use?
A. type:normal
B. type:sampled
C. type:errorsnapshot
D. type:whatsinteresting
Answer: C

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NO.28 Deleting a management module:
A. Removes the associated jar file from the operating system of the Enterprise Manager.
B. Does not remove the .jar file from the operating system of the Enterprise Manager and makes no
changes to the file.
C. Does not remove the .jar file from the operating system of the Enterprise Manager, but copies it to a
folder named MM_old.
D. Does not remove the .jar file from the operating system of the Enterprise Manager, but renames it by
appending the suffix?.inactive?.
Answer: A

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NO.29 You can configure CA Introscope ErrorDetector to ignore certain errors by editing which file?
A. errors.pbd
B. ErrorDetector.profile
C. IntroscopeAgent.profile
D. IntroscopeEnterpriseManager.profile
Answer: A

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NO.30 The preferred scripting language for developing Environment Performance Agent (EPA) plugins is:
A. Perl
B. Python
C. JavaScript
D. Shell script
Answer: C

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NO.31 Which metrics are MOST suitable for building alerts? (Choose three)
A. Stall Count
B. Errors Per Interval
C. Responses Per Interval
D. Concurrent Invocations
E. Average Response Time (ms)
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.32 What is the name of the .jar file containing the CLW.?
A. CLW.jar
B. CLWorkstation.jar
C. CommandLine.jar
D. CommandLineWorkstation.jar
Answer: B

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NO.33 Which metric type measures the number of incomplete requests during a time interval?
A. Stall Count
B. Instance counts
C. Errors Per Interval
D. Concurrent Invocations
Answer: D

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NO.34 Which step do you need to perform before you install CA Introscope ChangeDetector?
A. Stop all Enterprise Managers in your system.
B. Verify that you are using CA Introscope 9.0 or newer.
C. Set the ChangeDetector properties in IntroscopeAgent.profile.
D. Identify the <agent_home>, <Introscope_home>, and <Workstation_home> directories for CA
Introscope.
Answer: D

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NO.35 You are viewing a dashboard that displays data from 10 different Agents. You want to isolate and view
data from three Agents, which you suspect may be affected by a problem. What must you do to enable
this?
A. Activate the Console Lens feature
B. Activate the Historical Query feature and select multiple time periods
C. Select the Show Module and Domain names with Dashboard Name option
D. Create multiple copies of Dashboards, each one designed to show data from a different Agent
Answer: A

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NO.36 Significant changes were introduced for CA Customer Experience Manager (CA CEM) version 5.0. A
new CA CEM server deployment model is:
A. software only
B. v5.0 appliance only
C. legacy appliance only
D. virtual appliance only
Answer: A

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NO.37 Which statements about HTTP sessions are TRUE? (Choose two)
A. Only large objects, such as shopping carts should be stored in the session object.
B. Each HTTPSession object has a parameter that you can set to specify the session timeout value.
C. If users do not log out of the HTTP session, the object remains in memory until a timeout is reached.
D. Data structures created to support HTTP sessions cannot be reclaimed by the garbage collector (GC).
Answer: B,C

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NO.38 When you create metric groupings in the Investigator, you specify the data you want the metric
grouping to display, using regular expression language from Perl 5 in the metric grouping Agent
Expressions and Metric Expressions fields. A fully qualified metric name of a metric in a Resource looks
like this:
Acme|c1737019-a|AcmeUSA|AcmeWest|GC Heap:BytesIn Use
In this example, what does AcmeWest represent?
A. Domain
B. Process
C. Resource
D. Agent name
Answer: D

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NO.39 What must you configure for the Transaction Impact Monitor (TIM) to see network traffic sent by a web
server?
A. A full transaction
B. The monitor interface
C. The IP address of the web server
D. The requesting user s login credentials
Answer: A

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NO.40 For reporting purposes, data from Transaction Impact Monitors (TIMs) is aggregated daily. By default,
this occurs at:
A. noon
B. 9:00 AM
C. 3:00 AM
D. midnight
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which of the following is the Cable Modem (Cable-TV) Working Group?
A. IEEE 802.9
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.14
D. IEEE 802.3
Answer: C

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NO.2 A "wye" is a power system in which only one point is grounded.
A. False
B. True
Answer: B

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NO.3 A product is listed after it successfully completes a series of which of the following
test?
A. Mechanical
B. Regulatory codes
C. Electrical
D. Thermal
Answer: ACD

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NO.4 What is the standard floor space allocation used in an office environment for one
individual work area?
A. 100 square feet.
B. 50 square feet.
C. 150 square feet.
D. 75 square feet.
Answer: A

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NO.5 NRZ is the acronym for which of the following?
A. Non-return to zero.
B. Nominal return zone.
C. Network registration zone.
D. Normal return zone.
Answer: A

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NO.6 ANSI/TIA/EIA-758 is the standard for which of the following?
A. Customer-Owned Outside Plant Telecommunications Cabling Standard.
B. Technical Specifications for 100 Ohm Screened Twisted Pair Cabling.
C. Propagation Delay and Delay Skew Specifications for 100-Ohm 4-Pair Cable.
D. Residential Telecommunications Cabling Standard.
Answer: A

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NO.7 In what year was the TIA formed?
A. 1985
B. 1965
C. 1958
D. 1956
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following is the international standard for premises cabling?
A. ISO/IEC 18010
B. ISO/IEC 11801
Answer: B

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NO.9 Between the late 60's and until 1984, what was the service that was to help architects
and engineers better design and implement pathways and spaces in commercial
buildings for telephone communications?
A. BICS
B. AT&T
C. CREDFACS
D. GTE
E. BICSI
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following is the Standard for the Installation of Lightning Protection
Systems?
A. NFPA-780
B. NFPA-70
C. NFPA-72
D. NFPA-75
Answer: A

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NO.11 In buildings that will contain the telecommunications systems, NEC requirements
address the adequate electrical environment for reliable and error-free operation of
the installed equipment.
A. False
B. True
Answer: A

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NO.12 ________is the total opposition (resistance, capacitance, and inductance) a circuit,
cable, or component offers to the flow of alternating current.
A unit of measure expressed in ohms.
Answer: Impedance

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NO.13 Which of the following should be used as a guideline for estimating space
requirements of optical fiber and coaxial cable cross-connections in a TR?
A. 3 sq. in. for each fiber pair to be patched or cross-connected.
B. 2 sq. in. for each fiber pair to be patched or cross-connected.
C. 4 sq. in. for each fiber pair to be patched or cross-connected.
D. 1 sq. in. for each fiber pair to be patched or cross-connected.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following is the standard for "Recommended Practice for Installation
Design and Installation of Valve Regulated Lead-Acid Storage Batteries for
Stationary Applications"?
A. ANSI/IEEE C62.41
B. ANSI/IEEE C62.45
C. ANSI/IEEE P1188-1996
D. ANSI/IEEE P1187-1996
Answer: D

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NO.15 The ability of a device, equipment, or system to perform without degradation in the
presence of an electromagnetic disturbance is called what?
A. Electromagnetic immunity.
B. Electromagnetic compatibility.
C. Electromagnetic induction.
D. Electromagnetic disturbance.
Answer: A

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NO.16 Distribution cable is that part of the loop that connects the customer location to the
customer feeder cable.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.17 The CEC is revised every four years.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.18 The inadvertent transposition of two conductors of separate pairs is called what?
A. Twisted pair
B. Transposed pairs
C. Reversed pair
D. Split pair
Answer: D

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NO.19 For design purposes, which of the following would be the typical size range of a
4-pair 100 ohm UTP or ScTP (FTP) cable?
A. .50 in to .75 in
B. .14 in to .25 in
C. .31 in to .43 in
D. .11 in to .18 in
Answer: B

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NO.20 In an "underfloor duct system", the distribution ducts carry cables from the TR to
the feeder ducts.
A. False
B. True
Answer: A

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