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NO.1 In an iteration plan, which value is represented by the length of the progress bar
A. The amount of work estimated
B. The amount of work completed
C. The amount of work on schedule
D. The amount of active work
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the main purpose of the work item discussion section?
A. to add notes and exchange information about the work item
B. to assign the owner of the work item
C. to move the work item through its lifecycle to the resolved state
D. to associate a work item with a release
Answer: A

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NO.3 An organization uses the Formal Project Management process template for a project. Some
work items in the Gantt chart view of an iteration plan for the project are shown in red. What does
red indicate?
A. high severity
B. high priority
C. on the critical path
D. unassigned
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. The Deliver operation copies change sets from the repository workspace to the flow target.
B. The Check-In operation copies files modified from the local sandbox to the repository workspace.
C. The Check-Out operation copies files from the repository workspace into the local sandbox.
D. The Accept operation copies change sets from the flow target into the repository workspace and
local sandbox.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.5 A team wants to make some attributes mandatory when work items are created. In order to
meet this objective, want can be done in Rational Team Concert ?
A. Work item attributes are all optional by design and there is no way to define mandatory
attributes for work items
B. Add a precondition to the Work Item Save operation to define which fields in a work item must
be filled in before it can be saved
C. Work item attributes are all mandatory by design. Users who create a work item are required to
fill in all the attributes.
D. Add a follow-up action to the Work Item Save operation to define the error message to display
when mandatory attributes are not filled in
Answer: B

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NO.6 When does the RTC SCM detect conflicts? (Choose two.)
A. When incoming and outgoing change sets are coming from the same user
B. When incoming and outgoing change sets include changes to the same file
C. When incoming and outgoing change sets include changes to the same folders
D. When incoming and outgoing change sets are coming from two different users
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 What is the velocity for a development team following the Scrum process template?
A. the average number of hours the team can deliver in an iteration
B. the average number of stories the team can deliver in an iteration
C. the average number of story points the team can deliver in an iteration
D. the average number of tasks the team can deliver in an iteration
Answer: C

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NO.8 What are configurable items for the process template?
A. timelines, iterations, roles, and operational behaviors
B. plugins, cheat sheets, and dependencies
C. Java source code, source comments, and event handlers
D. categories, releases, and access control
Answer: A

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NO.1 A customer has a large quantity of LTO-2 media.
The customer would like to be able to read that media, while at the same time acquiring a tape
library which supports hardware encryption.
Which LTO format and attachment method supports these requirements?
A. SAS-attached LTO-5
B. USB-attached LTO-6
C. SCSI-attached LTO-3
D. Fibre-attached LTO-4
Answer: D

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NO.2 A customer with a POWERS 520 running IBM i is debating consolidating to a POWER7+770
that is currently only running AIX, or replacing the POWERS with a POWER7+720. The budget is
limited, and the customer SWMA contract is expired.
Which option is the most economical?
A. Transfer the IBM i license to the POWER7+770
B. Purchase a POWER7+ 720 and a new IBM i license
C. Purchase a new IBM i license for the POWER7+ 770
D. Purchase a POWER7+ 720 and transfer the IBM i license
Answer: B

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NO.3 A POWER7+system managed by IBM i is hosting an IBM i client that requires 24 virtual disks.
What is the minimum host configuration to support the client storage?
A. 2 vSCSIcontrollers 2 Network Server Descriptions
B. 1 vSCSIcontroller 1 Network Server Description
C. 3 vSCSIcontrollers 3 Network Server Descriptions
D. 4 vSCSI controllers 2 Network Server Descriptions
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer with a POWERS 520 and a FC #0595 expansion unit wants to upgrade to a
POWER7+720. The customer has TS2900 SCSI-attached tape drive and 20 70GB disk units.
Which elements of the original system can be used in the new system?
A. The TS2900 can be converted to SAS connectivity.
B. The memory DIMMS, if larger than 4GB, can be directly installed.
C. The EC #0595 expansion unit can be converted from HSL-2 to 12X.
D. The 70GB drive data can be migrated using Pack Utilities Maintenance Program in SST.
Answer: A

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NO.5 A customer would like to share a tape library among multiple partitions to run backups on a
nightly basis, but doesn't have the budget for a fibre switch or dedicated fibre adapters. They need
to be able to have their single fibre adapter available to each partition on a scheduled basis.
What product or feature can help accommodate this requirement?
A. iASP
B. BRMS
C. Media and Storage Extensions
D. Hardware Management Console
Answer: D

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NO.1 External penetration testing is a traditional approach to penetration testing and is more
focused on the servers, infrastructure and the underlying software comprising the target. It involves a
comprehensive analysis of publicly available information about the target, such as Web servers, Mail
servers, Firewalls, and Routers.
Which of the following types of penetration testing is performed with no prior knowledge of the site?
A. Blue box testing
B. White box testing
C. Grey box testing
D. Black box testing
Answer: D

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Reference:http://books.google.com.pk/books?id=5m6ta2fgTswC&pg=SA5-
PA4&lpg=SA5PA4&dq=penetration+testing+is+performed+with+no+prior+knowledge+of+the+site&s
ourc
e=bl&ots=8GkmyUBH2U&sig=wdBIboWxrhk5QjlQXs3yWOcuk2Q&hl=en&sa=X&ei=SgfVI2LLc3qaOa5g
IgO&ved=0CCkQ6AEwAQ#v=onepage&q=penetration%20testing%20i
s%20performed%20with%20no%20prior%20knowledge%20of%20the%20site&f=false

NO.2 Which of the following appendices gives detailed lists of all the technical terms used in the
report?
A. Required Work Efforts
B. References
C. Research
D. Glossary
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Refere'http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Glossary

NO.3 Which of the following is the objective of Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act?
A. To ease the transfer of financial information between institutions and banks
B. To protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data
C. To set a new or enhanced standards for all U.S. public company boards, management and public
accounting firms
D. To certify the accuracy of the reported financial statement
Answer: B

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Reference:http://www.itap.purdue.edu/security/policies/glb_safeguards_rule_training_gener
al.pdf

NO.4 A firewall protects networked computers from intentional hostile intrusion that could
compromise confidentiality or result in data corruption or denial of service. It examines all traffic
routed between the two networks to see if it meets certain criteria. If it does, it is routed between
the networks, otherwise it is stopped.
Why is an appliance-based firewall is more secure than those implemented on top of the commercial
operating system (Software based)?
A. Appliance based firewalls cannot be upgraded
B. Firewalls implemented on a hardware firewall are highly scalable
C. Hardware appliances does not suffer from security vulnerabilities associated with the underlying
operating system
D. Operating system firewalls are highly configured
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following is the range for assigned ports managed by the Internet Assigned
Numbers Authority (IANA)?
A. 3001-3100
B. 5000-5099
C. 6666-6674
D. 0 - 1023
Answer: D

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Reference:https://www.ietf.org/rfc/rfc1700.txt(well known port numbers, 4thpara)

NO.6 Which of the following policies helps secure data and protects the privacy of organizational
information?
A. Special-Access Policy
B. Document retention Policy
C. Cryptography Policy
D. Personal Security Policy
Answer: C

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NO.7 If a web application sends HTTP cookies as its method for transmitting session tokens, it may
be vulnerable which of the following attacks?
A. Parameter tampering Attack
B. Sql injection attack
C. Session Hijacking
D. Cross-site request attack
Answer: D

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Reference:https://www.owasp.org/index.php/Cross-site_Scripting_(XSS)

NO.8 Mason is footprinting an organization to gather competitive intelligence. He visits the
company's website for contact information and telephone numbers but does not find any. He knows
the entire staff directory was listed on their website 12 months. How can he find the directory?
A. Visit Google's search engine and view the cached copy
B. Crawl and download the entire website using the Surfoffline tool and save them to his computer
C. Visit the company's partners' and customers' website for this information
D. Use WayBackMachine in Archive.org web site to retrieve the Internet archive
Answer: D

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NO.1 Joe, the system administrator, has been asked to calculate the Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE)
for a $5,000 server, which often crashes. In the past year, the server has crashed 10 times, requiring
a system reboot to recover with only 10% loss of data or function. Which of the following is the ALE
of this server?
A. $500
B. $5,000
C. $25,000
D. $50,000
Answer: B

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NO.2 An achievement in providing worldwide Internet security was the signing of certificates
associated with which of the following protocols?
A. TCP/IP
B. SSL
C. SCP
D. SSH
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following can a security administrator implement on mobile devices that will
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A. Screen lock
B. Voice encryption
C. GPS tracking
D. Device encryption
Answer: A

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NO.4 A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) wants to implement two-factor authentication
within the company. Which of the following would fulfill the CISO's requirements?
A. Username and password
B. Retina scan and fingerprint scan
C. USB token and PIN
D. Proximity badge and token
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following would a security administrator implement in order to identify a
problem between two systems that are not communicating properly?
A. Protocol analyzer
B. Baseline report
C. Risk assessment
D. Vulnerability scan
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following can result in significant administrative overhead from incorrect
reporting?
A. Job rotation
B. Acceptable usage policies
C. False positives
D. Mandatory vacations
Answer: C

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NO.7 Three of the primary security control types that can be implemented are.
A. supervisory, subordinate, and peer.
B. personal, procedural, and legal.
C. operational, technical, and management.
D. mandatory, discretionary, and permanent.
Answer: C

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NO.8 The helpdesk reports increased calls from clients reporting spikes in malware infections on
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A. Recovery
B. Follow-up
C. Validation
D. Identification
E. Eradication
F. Containment
Answer: D

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Exam Code: SY0-401
Exam Name: CompTIA Security+ Certification
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Exam Code: MB0-001
Exam Name: CompTIA Mobility+ Certification Exam
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NO.1 Ann, an administrator, is at a tradeshow and wishes to exchange contact information with a
vendor. Which of the following can she use? (Select TWO).
A. IR
B. DMZ
C. NFC
D. DNS
E. CSD
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Company employees are reporting wireless network connectivity issues. Which of the
following can cause interference for the company wireless network? (Select TWO).
A. Microwave ovens
B. Refrigerators
C. Nearby cell phone towers
D. Vending machines
E. Bluetooth devices
Answer: A,E

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NO.3 Ann, a user, called to report an issue related to authenticating to her mobile device. After
resolving the issue, which of the following is the FINAL task that should be completed by the
mobility administrator according to troubleshooting best practices?
A. Establish a theory of probable cause
B. Verify full system functionality
C. Document findings, actions, and outcomes
D. Implement preventative measures
Answer: C

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NO.4 When an application is assigned to a group profile:
A. it is assigned to all administrative users by default.
B. it is assigned to all users in the group.
C. it is removed from all users in the group.
D. it is assigned to all other groups.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following are considered security protocols? (Select THREE).
A. TLS
B. GCM
C. POP3
D. SSL
E. IMAP
F. 3DES
G. SMTP
Answer: A,D,F

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NO.6 A solution which tracks and organizes the usage and cost of voice and data is referred to as:
A. TEM.
B. MaaS.
C. SaaS.
D. B2B.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following would be used to enforce a policy requiring two-factor authentication
on certain mobile devices?
A. Username and password
B. Facial recognition and PIN
C. Pattern unlock and password
D. Fingerprint and retina scan
Answer: B

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NO.8 During the e-discovery process, a litigation hold has been placed on information stored in
several areas, including the mobile device of the Chief Financial Officer (CFO). Which of the
following
A. Review logging on the device and connecting MDM server
B. Isolate the device and apply chain of custody controls
C. Encrypt information stored internally on the device
D. Hash information stored on the device
Answer: D

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Exam Name: Network Technology Associate
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Exam Name: Internet Business Associate
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NO.1 Which HTML validator is best for a final check before a new Web site is published?
A. GUI HTML editor's validator
B. Your browser's add-on validator
C. W3C validator at http://validator.w3.org
D. W3C validator at http://jigsaw.w3.org/css-validator/
Answer: C

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NO.2 A user is submitting data from a form on your Web page to a database using a CCI script.
Which attribute of the form field elements organizes the user's information into name=value
pairs?
A. Name
B. Form
C. Value
D. Method
Answer: A

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NO.3 Consider the following HTML5 code:
The code does not validate as HTML5. Why?
A. The <article> tag is missing.
B. The <meta> tag and its attributes are missing.
C. The <blockquote> tag should be used outside the <p> tags.
D. The !DOCTYPEdeclaration is missing a reference to the Document Type Definition (DTD).
Answer: C

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NO.4 When you are using stock images in your Web site, a royalty-free license allows you to:
A. Use the images without paying a fee for each use.
B. Resell or transfer the images without paying a fee.
C. Use the images without purchasing a license.
D. Assumecopyrightof the images.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Marion is formatting a simple Web page. She has been asked to create headings before the
first and third paragraphs.
To accomplish this most efficiently, which type of HTML
elements should Marion use?
A. Text-level elements
B. Block quote elements
C. Fixed-width font elements
D. Paragraph-level elements
Answer: D

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NO.6 You are modifying an existing Web page that needs to validate as HTML5 code. To create a
rectangular hot-spot in an image map that links to www.xyz.com, which code would you nest inside
the <map> </map> container tags?
A. <area shape="rectangle" coords="78, 0, 156, 75" href="http://www.xyz.com" alt="xyz"
B. <area shape="rectangle" coords="78, 0, 156, 75" href="www.xyz.com" alt="xyz" />
C. <area shape="rect" coords="78, 0, 156, 75" href="http://www.xyz.com" alt="xyz" />
D. <area shape="rect" coords="78, 0, 156, 75" href=http://www.xyz.com />
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which <1mg> tag attribute is required in order for HTML5 documents to validate without
error?
A. id
B. alt
C. name
D. title
Answer: B

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NO.8 Katie developed her corporation's intra net site using proprietary HTML language extensions
based on the company's current browser. The company has recently updated its systems toinclude
the use of a new browser. Now the intra net site that Katie developed no longer renders its content
consistently. What should Katie do to ensure that this site's content renders consistently regardless
of the browser used?
A. Revise the site to include workarounds and hacks for the new browser.
B. Revise the site's markup language in only those areas that are not rendering properly.
C. Update the site using a single language standard consistently, such as HTML5 or XHTML.
D. Update the site using the proprietary language extensions required by the new browser's
rendering engine.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 1Y0-370
Exam Name: Designing, Deploying and Managing Citrix XenMobile Solutions
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NO.1 Scenario: Support staff need GoToAssist in order to provide clients around the world with
support remotely. In order to complete this request, the Citrix Engineer must configure GoToAssist
with the XenMobile Device Manager and App Controller.
Which two items of GoToAssist information must the engineer enter in both the Device Manager
and App Controller consoles to complete the installation of GoToAssist? (Choose two.)
A. Chat Token
B. Serial Key File token
C. Email Integration Key
D. Web Console Address
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Scenario: A Citrix Engineer must provide remote users with access to their corporate e-mail
from their mobile devices.
The engineer must ensure remote users' mobile devices meet the following requirements:
-
Mobile devices require a PIN for corporate email.
-
Mobile devices cannot be jailbroken.
-
Mobile devices must be enrolled to XenMobile Device Manager.
-Only iOS devices will have access to corporate email.
Which component should the engineer include in the solution to enforce the requirements outlined
in the scenario?
A. WorxMail
B. App Controller
C. TouchDown mail client
D. XenMobile NetScaler Connector
Answer: D

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NO.3 Scenario: A Citrix Engineer has been instructed to deploy an internal application to mobile
users with iPads. The application will be deployed from XenMobile Device Manager.
Which action should the engineer take first to upload the application?
A. Browse to the .ipa file in the 'Applications' tab.
B. Browse to the .apk file in the 'Applications' tab.
C. Browse to the .mdx file in the 'Applications' tab.
D. Specify the App store URL of the application in the 'Applications' tab.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Scenario: XenMobile has been selected as the new mobility solution for an organization. The
organization currently has a Citrix XenApp environment with remote access provided through
NetScaler ICA Proxy. A Citrix Engineer needs to redesign the email access solution for remote users
and the organization requires that the new solution integrate with the native iOS Mail.
Which component should be implemented to meet the requirements outlined in the scenario?
A. WorxMail
B. Secure Mobile Gateway
C. XenMobile Mail Manager
D. XenMobile NetScaler Connector
Answer: D

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NO.5 Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to add 10.10.220.10 as a Subnet IP (SNIP) through the
NetScaler command-line interface. The SNIP will be used to provide connectivity to devices on
another subnet. Management access is required through the SNIP .
Which command should the engineer use?
A. add ns ip -type snip 10.10.220.10 255.255.255.0 -mgmtaccess ENABLED
B. add ns ip 10.10.220.10 255.255.255.0 -type SNIP -mgmtaccess ENABLED
C. add ns ip 10.10.220.10 -mask 255.255.255.0 -type SNIP -mgmtaccess ENABLED
D. add ns ip 10.10.220.10 255.255.255.0 -type SNIP-ssh ENABLED -restrictaccess DISABLED
Answer: B

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9. Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to publish a custom mobile application for iOS devices from
the XenMobile environment.
Security requirements for the application are as follows:
-Clipboard must be disabled.
-Application cannot be installed on jailbroken devices.
Which action must the engineer take to meet the security requirements stated in the scenario?
A. Wrap the .ipa file using the MDX Toolkit for XenMobile and configure the MDX policies.
B. Upload the .ipa file to the XenMobile Device Manager and create a deployment package to install
the application on the user device during device enrollment.
C. Upload the .ipa file directly to App Controller and require enrollment to the XenMobile Device
Manager before users can register with the App Controller.
D. Publish the application for employees using the Apple App Store and require that users download
the application from the Apple App Store instead of the App Controller.
Answer: A

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10. Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to create a proof of concept for a XenMobile project and
needs to ensure that the following requirements are met:
-Users must be able to access corporate web and SaaS applications from their personal mobile
devices.
-Access to Citrix hosted applications and desktops on XenApp and XenDesktop is NOT required at
this time.
-Users' devices should NOT be managed.
-Users will require access to WorxWeb and WorxMail.
Which three components will meet the requirements of the scenario? (Choose three.)
A. StoreFront
B. Worx Home
C. MDX Toolkit
D. Citrix Receiver
E. XenMobile App Controller
F. XenMobile Device Manager server
Answer: A,D,F

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NO.6 Which three prerequisites must be met to deploy XenMobile Device Manager in a high
availability configuration? (Choose three.)
A. IIS installed and configured on two web servers
B. VIP or host name configured on a load balancer
C. SSL Session Persistence on ports 443 and 8443 on the load balancer
D. SQL Server Database accessible from both nodes of the high availability pair
E. PostgreSQL database accessible from both nodes of the high availability pair
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.7 Which connection type is used when WorxWeb for iOS is configured to use Secure Browse
mode?
A. Full VPN
B. Micro VPN
C. STA Tunnel
D. Clientless VPN
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is the recommended procedure for reverting an App Controller high availability (HA) pair
to a previous snapshot?
A. Import the snapshot to the secondary node, import the snapshot to the primary node and restart
the primary node.
B. Disable high availability, shut down the primary node and import the snapshot to the secondary
node, start the primary node.
C. Disable high availability, shut down the secondary node and import the snapshot to the primary
node,restart the primary node.
D. Shut down the secondary node, import the snapshot to the primary node, and restart the
primary node, start the secondary node.
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which of the following statements accurately describes the command upgrade_export?
A. Used primarily when upgrading the Security Management Server, upgrade_export stores all object
databases and the /conf directories for importing to a newer Security
Gateway version.
B. upgrade_export stores network-configuration data, objects, global properties, and the database
revisions prior to upgrading the Security Management Server.
C. This command is no longer supported in GAiA.
D. upgrade_export is used when upgrading the Security Gateway, and allows certain files to be
included or excluded before exporting.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What information is found in the SmartView Tracker Management log?
A. Administrator SmartDashboard logout event
B. SecurePlatform expert login event
C. Creation of an administrator using cpconfig
D. FTP username authentication failure
Answer: A

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NO.3 Your boss wants you to closely monitor an employee suspected of transferring company secrets
to the competition. The IT department discovered the suspect installed a WinSCP client in order to
use encrypted communication. Which of the following methods is BEST to accomplish this task?
A. Use SmartView Tracker to follow his actions by filtering log entries that feature the WinSCP
destination port. Then, export the corresponding entries to a separate log file for documentation.
B. Watch his IP in SmartView Monitor by setting an alert action to any packet that matches your Rule
Base and his IP address for inbound and outbound traffic.
C. Send the suspect an email with a keylogging Trojan attached, to get direct information about his
wrongdoings.
D. Use SmartDashboard to add a rule in the firewall Rule Base that matches his IP address, and those
of potential targets and suspicious protocols. Apply the alert action or customized messaging.
Answer: A

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NO.4 The technical-support department has a requirement to access an intranet server. When
configuring a User Authentication rule to achieve this, which of the following should you remember?
A. You can limit the authentication attempts in the User Properties' Authentication tab.
B. Once a user is first authenticated, the user will not be prompted for authentication again until
logging out.
C. You can only use the rule for Telnet, FTP, SMTP, and rlogin services.
D. The Security Gateway first checks if there is any rule that does not require authentication for this
type of connection before invoking the Authentication Security Server.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which R75 component displays the number of packets accepted, rejected, and dropped on a
specific Security Gateway, in real time?
A. SmartView Monitor
B. SmartView Status
C. SmartEvent
D. SmartUpdate
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which statement is TRUE about implicit rules?
A. You create them in SmartDashboard.
B. The Gateway enforces implicit rules that enable outgoing packets only.
C. Changes to the Security Gateway's default settings do not affect implicit rules.
D. They are derived from Global Properties and explicit object properties.
Answer: D

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NO.7 You install and deploy GAiA with default settings. You allow Visitor Mode in the Gateway
object's Remote Access properties and install policy; but SecureClient refuses to connect. What is the
cause of this?
A. Set Visitor Mode in Policy > Global Properties > Remote-Access > VPN - Advanced.
B. Office mode is not configured.
C. You need to start SSL Network Extender first, then use Visitor Mode.
D. The WebUI on GAiA runs on port 443 (HTTPS). When you configure Visitor Mode it cannot bind to
default port 443, because it's used by another program (WebUI). You need to change the WebUI
port, or run Visitor Mode on a different port.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which R77 GUI would you use to see the number of packets accepted since the last policy
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A. SmartView Monitor
B. SmartView Status
C. SmartView Tracker
D. SmartDashboard
Answer: A

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NO.1 The IBM Diagnostics for POS Systems and Peripherals runs from which media?
A. the Enterprise server
B. a USB connected CDROM drive
C. a USB memory key, 256MB or larger
D. a subdirectory on the system hard disk drive
Answer: C

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NO.2 How long is the warranty period forthe IBM SurePOS 5x5?
A. six months
B. twelve months
C. thirty-six months
D. twenty-four months
Answer: B

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NO.3 What are four optional features for the IBM SurePOS 5x5? (Choose four.)
A. presence sensor
B. three-track MSR
C. video adapter card
D. internal CD-ROM drive
E. 512MB of system memory
F. 4GB embedded modular flash drive
G. compact ANPOS keyboard
Answer: B,C,F,G

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NO.4 Which two statements are true about "dual-channel memory enabled"technology? (Choose
two)
A. It makes use of virtual RAM.
B. It doubles the capacity of feeding data to the processor.
C. It has two sets of memory slots (two each) on the system board.
D. It is the equivalent of having two pipelines to the processor rather than one.
E. It partitions a portion of the hard disk drive to be used as an additional memory cache.
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 What is the best way to clean an IBM SurePOS 5x5 touch screen?
A. use a chlorine-based window cleaner and soft cloth
B. use a common ammonia-based window cleaner and a soft cloth
C. use isopropyl alcohol or a mild liquid glass cleaner and a soft cloth
D. use a damp sponge moistened with hot water and a small amount of non-abrasive cleaner
Answer: C

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NO.6 What are two advantages of the infrared technology used in the IBM SurePOS 5x5? (Choose
two.)
A. It is the most economical tomass produce.
B. Field calibration is only required once a year.
C. Infrared touch screens have an unlimited number of touches.
D. It provides the best overall image quality of any touch technology.
E. A special coating makes infrared touch screens easierto clean than other technologies.
Answer: C,D

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NO.7 Where is the RJ45 MSR connector located on the IBM SurePOS 5x5?
A. on therear connector panel
B. on the back side of the display panel
C. integrated into the system unit (tower) behind the display panel
D. integrated into the right side of the system unit (tower) as it is facing the operator
Answer: B

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NO.8 What does improved serviceability refer to in relation to theIBM SurePOS 5x5 models?
A. having the virtually tool-less design of several components
B. having on-site service, 24 hours a day, five days a week, next day response time
C. having on-site service, 24 hours a day, seven days a week, same day responsetime
D. having rigorously tested each component used in the systems to ensure a longer life span
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which statement is true about rotating items?
A. Rotating items are consumable parts.
B. Rotating items cannot be returned for repair.
C. Rotating items can only be installed at a location.
D. Rotating items can have an inventory value and balance.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which statement is true when working with condition codes?
A. Only one condition code can be used per item set.
B. Condition codes are not considered when an item is issued.
C. A condition rate of 100% must exist for at least one condition code.
D. Condition codes can only be associated with an item in the Item Master application.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are the two file formats in which scheduled reports can be e-mailed to a recipient?
A. TXT
B. GIF
C. XLS
D. PDF
E. DOC
Answer: C,D

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NO.4 How should a user create an association between items and an asset?
A. Go to the Assets application and from the Items tab, add the items.
B. Go to the Assets application and from the Spare Parts tab. add the items.
C. Go to the Assets application and from the Select Action menu, choose Associate Items.
D. Go to the Assets application and from the Select Action menu, choose Add/Modify Asset.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What does it mean when a purchase contract has a status of WSTART?
A. The contract has been revised to start.
B. The contract is waiting for approval to start.
C. The start date of this contract is in the future.
D. WSTART is not a valid status for a purchase contract.
Answer: C

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NO.6 When would an approved purchase order (PO) need to be revised?
A. change of status
B. change to an internal PO
C. changes to quantity of items ordered
D. cancellation of a PO after goods are received
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which tab in the Query-based Reporting dialog allows fields to be added to the report?
A. Style
B. Select
C. Format
D. Submit
Answer: B

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NO.8 When is a flow control action executed?
A. when a work order is saved through flow control
B. when the work order is started through a workflow
C. when the work order is started through a flow control
D. when the work order is completed through a workflow
Answer: B

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NO.1 What product makes it easy to build Scorecards and Dashboards?
A. cxReveal
B. cxResults
C. cxView
D. cxVerify
Answer: C

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NO.2 What does a Hit Attribute look for?
A. Specific text strings that can be found within the Request and Response buffer.
B. A trait or component of a session.
C. Data saved in an event
D. All of the above
Answer: A

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NO.3 A Count Event could be used to record any of the following EXCEPT:
A. The abandoned cart amount
B. How many customers logged in
C. How frequently visitors see an out of stock message
D. How many times an error code is displayed
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following is a best practice for creating Process Scorecards:
A. Only use steps from the main process flow
B. When you first deploy a new Process Scorecard, the grading should reflect the most stringent
goals of your company.
C. You should only use compound sequence Events for all process steps
D. Your process steps should include any possible step that the visitor could take to complete the
process
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is a Report Template?
A. A framework from which you can build robust Dashboards, Scorecards, or Reports
B. Proactive notifications of changes in Event levels.
C. A way to segment Event Data.
D. Basic interface to replay a session
Answer: A

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NO.6 When Events fire, what happens:
A. A counter is incremented that tracks the occurrence of the Event for Reports
B. An Event value can be set and saved in the session data
C. Dimension values can be set and saved in the session data
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.1 When working on aOneTeam PMR, how does a FrontEnd engineer show that they have
primary responsibility for the PMR from the beginning to the end?
A. Taking Ownership and marking this in the Owner field of the PMR.
B. Taking Ownership and marking this in the Keyword 1 field of the PMR.
C. Write their name in the PMR text and explain that they are responsible for this PMR.
D. Enter their name in the Resolver field of the PMR and demonstrate responsibility for resolution.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What should be done to ensure good communication inside the Front End teams and for Front
End to Back End communications?
A. Make sure, all people have your mobile phone number, to contact you any time.
B. Make sure that Bluepages is always up to date with current contact information.
C. As soon as you are in the office, make sure that you tell everyone you are available now.
D. Before transferring a PMR to theBack Endalways check with your development contact, whether
it is ok.
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is purpose of the Assist on Site (AOS) tool?
A. It is a remote tool by which a BackEnd engineer can contact their customer.
B. It is a remote tool by which IBM Learning Services can perform remote education for a customer.
C. It is a remote tool by which a technical support engineer can contact another peer for problem
analysis.
D. It is a live remote-assistance tool by which a technical support engineer can assist a customer in
problem resolution.
Answer: D

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NO.4 A customer with a Passport Advantage contract has opened a Severityl PMR.
What is the responsiveness target for this PMR?
A. within one hour
B. within two hours
C. within five hours
D. the best endeavors
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the purpose of the Owner ID field in aOneTeam PMR?
A. clearly identifies the BackEnd (BE) PMR owner
B. identify APAR number
C. clearly identifies the FrontEnd PMR owner
D. allow BE to find customer contract number
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which guidelines must be followed when a FrontEnd engineer transfers a PMR to the BackEnd?
A. FastPath guidelines
B. OneTeam guidelines
C. guidelines on Product Support page
D. guidelines onw3.ibm.com/oneteam
Answer: B

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