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Exam Code: GB0-183
Exam Name: Huawei-3Com Certified Network Engineer
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Last Update: 2014-04-29

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NO.1 25
A. FTP
B. TFTP
C. Telnet
D. SMTP
D

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NO.2 A. 0
B. 10
C. 30
D.
A

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NO.3 ISDN
A.
1
NT1
B.
2
NT2
C. 1
TE1
D. 2
TE2
E.
TA
ABCDE

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NO.4 RIP
520
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. IP
D. PPP
B

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NO.5 Quidway VRP
A. ping
B. tracert
C. show path
D. display path
B

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NO.6 Quidway
vrp 3.4
A. write
B. save
C. copy
D. reset
B

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NO.7 TCP
T. True
F. False
F

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NO.8 A.
B.
C.
D.
D

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Exam Code: FD0-510
Exam Name: Interstage Certified Associate V9
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NO.1 Second generation Web Services are characterised by which one of the following characteristics?
A. Support for WS-* extension (or WS-* stack) web services
B. Support for Service Oriented Layers built on first generation Web Services
C. Support for SOA built using first generation Web Services technology
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following statements is correct regarding the differences between Service Oriented
Architecture (SOA) and Enterprise Application Integration (EAI)
A. EAI is the next progression of a SOA. It allows applications to interact more easily.
B. SOA solves all the problems associated with EAI.
C. EAI solved many problems with integrating applications. SOA is the next evolutionary step.
D. SOA allows systems to be tightly coupled eliminating the loose coupling inherent with EAI.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which one of the following items is NOT a key aspect of a Service Oriented Architecture system.?
A. Tight coupling
B. Service Contract
C. Reusability
D. Statelessness
Answer: A

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Exam Code: EX0-106
Exam Name: SCNS Tactical Perimeter Defense
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Exam Code: EX0-003
Exam Name: Managing Successful Programmes Foundation
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Exam Code: EX0-112
Exam Name: Business Information Management Foundation
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NO.1 Which is NOT an objective of the programme communications process?
A. Ensure expectations about what will be delivered remain realistic
B. Maintain high levels of awareness and commitment
C. Specify how stakeholders will be identified
D. Describe what future operations are likely to look like
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which part of the scope of programme quality is MOST likely to be concerned with making
best use of skills and experience?
A. Standards management
B. People management
C. Process management
D. Communications management
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the step in the Benefits Management Cycle that includes carrying out activities to
transition the capabilities delivered by the projects into outcomes?
A. Deliver benefits realization
B. Identify benefits
C. Develop the benefits management approach
D. Plan benefits realization
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which describes the result of a risk on a programme?
A. Risk cause
B. Risk appetite
C. Risk aggregation
D. Risk effect
Answer: D

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NO.5 What document describes how the roles in the programme team relate to each other?
A. Stakeholder Profiles
B. Blueprint
C. Project Dossier
D. Organization Structure
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which is ensured by the Business Change Manager in the process Realizing the Benefits?
A. Optimal running of the programme verified by audits and reviews
B. Effective benefits realization through creating a Benefits Management Strategy
C. Readiness of the organization to implement the changes
D. Alignment of project scope with benefits realization
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which is a feature of effective programme organization needed to deliver the programme's
desired outcomes?
A. Transition management
B. Blueprint
C. Gated reviews
D. Management structures
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which is NOT a reason for Managing the Tranches?
A. Implement monitoring and control governance for the programme
B. Assess the programme regularly to check it is in line with the strategic direction of the
organization
C. Achieve stabilization of operational areas which have transitioned to the new state
D. Update programme governance baselines to reflect lessons learned
Answer: C

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Exam Code: TMPTE
Exam Name: TMap NEXT® Test Engineer
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Exam Code: MOFF
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Exam Code: EX0-103
Exam Name: ISO/IEC 20000 Foundation
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NO.1 Which of the aspects listed below is included in ISO/IEC 20000?
A. customer communication
B. employee motivation
C. social responsibility
D. standard products
Answer: A

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NO.2 The Service Provider should check that the Service Management objectives and the plan are being
achieved. Which of the following items is not measured as part of this monitoring, measuring or review?
A. Customer satisfaction
B. Major non-conformities
C. Problems
D. Resource utilization
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the objective of a Management System?
A. to define, agree, record and manage levels of services
B. to ensure that Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) are defined for all IT services
C. to ensure that new services and changes to services will be deliverable and manageable at the agreed
cost and services quality
D. to provide the policies and the framework that is needed for the effective management and
implementation of all IT services
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which service changes should be documented in change records?
A. all service changes
B. formal closure of services
C. staff recruitment
D. user training
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which statement below is not a purpose of Supplier Management procedures?
A. that business transactions between all parties are recorded
B. that information on the performance of all suppliers can be observed and acted upon
C. that it is made clear that the supplier cannot subcontract part of the delivered services to the Service
Provider
D. that the suppliers understand their obligation to the Service Provider
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following is Problem Management primarily concerned with?
A. looking at Security Plans
B. looking at the cause of Incidents
C. looking at the Change Plan
D. looking at the Release Strategy
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is the added value of a service being delivered?
A. You can specifically define the service by means of a Service Level Agreement (SLA).
B. You do not have the ownership of specific costs and risks in producing the service.
C. You do not have to invest in a process to control it.
D. The outcomes have a lower total cost of ownership than when the value is produced within the
customer organization.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following tasks is assigned to each process manager?
A. channeling data to Problem Management
B. ensuring the process is running effectively and efficiently
C. following up on Incidents
D. setting up Service Level Agreements with the users
Answer: B

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Exam Code: E20-690
Exam Name: VNX Solutions Specialist Exam for Platform Engineers
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Exam Code: E20-891
Exam Name: Backup Recovery Solutions Expert Exam for Technology Architects
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NO.1 Which resource is required for all VNX activities performed by EMC and Partner personnel?
A. Simple VNX Support Matrix
B. Host Connectivity Guide
C. VNX Procedure Generator
D. Interoperability Matrices
Answer: C

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NO.2 Refer to the exhibit.
Which DAE and components does cable 1 connect?
A. SP A slot 0 port 1 to the SAS expander on DAE 0 LCC A
B. SP A slot 0 port 0 to the SAS expander on DAE 1 LCC A
C. SP B slot 0 port 0 to the SAS expander on DAE 1 LCC B
D. SP B slot 0 port 1 to the SAS expander on DAE 0 LCC B
Answer: A

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NO.3 Where can you find the widest range of resources for VNX-related information?
A. VNX Family Product Page
B. Support by Product
C. Partners Web Page
D. IP Storage Handbook
Answer: A

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NO.4 How are SAS bus hardware IDs configured for the VNX enclosures?
A. Automatically assigned during system boot process
B. Assigned by the address switch located on each enclosure
C. Assigned by Unisphere Service Manager
D. Assigned by the Backend Bus Reset Wizard in Unisphere
Answer: A

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NO.5 Refer to the exhibit.
Which DAE and components does cable 2 connect?
A. SP A slot 0 port 0 to the SAS expander on DAE 1 LCC A
B. SP B slot 0 port 1 to the SAS expander on DAE 0 LCC B
C. SP B slot 0 port 0 to the SAS expander on DAE 1 LCC B
D. SP A slot 0 port 1 to the SAS expander on DAE 0 LCC A
Answer: B

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NO.6 What IP address is assigned to the eth2 interface on a Control Station?
A. IP address for the B management network
B. IP address for the A management network
C. Public IP address for the customer's network
D. IP address for the peer Control Station
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which kind of back-end bus connectivity is supported on a VNX storage system?
A. 4 lane 6 Gb/s SAS
B. 4 lane 6 Gb/s FC
C. 2 lane 6 Gb/s SAS
D. 2 lane 6 Gb/s FC
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which VNX enclosures use a common motherboard architecture?
A. DME and SPE
B. DPE and SPE
C. DPE and 25-drive DAE
D. Control Station and DME
Answer: A

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NO.1 What is the length of RSA keys used to encrypt and decrypt network traffic in a VNX environment?
A. 2048 bits
B. 1024 bits
C. 2048 bytes
D. 1024 bytes
Answer: A

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NO.2 You are supporting a customer whose VNX hostname has recently changed. Immediately after this
change, the VNX administrators begin to receive certificate errors when they attempt to connect to the
array. You need to advise them on how to regenerate the Control Station ¯ s ce rtifi ca t e au t ho rit y and w b
server certificates.
Which command should be used?
A. server_certificate
B. server_security
C. nas_ca_certificate
D. nas_license
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which drive type benefits least from enabling FAST Cache?
A. Flash
B. NL-SAS
C. SAS
D. SATA
Answer: A

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NO.4 What monitoring option is used for file system and network performance?
A. Background Tasks for File
B. Statistics for File
C. Event Logs for File
D. Notification Logs for File
Answer: B

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NO.5 When generating a Certificate Signing Request (CSR), what is a valid statement about the certificate?
A. The Public key must be an RSA key.
B. The certificate must be set to expire within 20 years.
C. The subject ¯ s O r gan i za ti ona l U n it N a m e m us t be se t t o VNX .
D. The subject ¯ s co mm on na m e m us t be se t t o t he C on tr o l S t a ti o ¡ ¯s IP ad dr es s
Answer: A

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NO.6 In order to ensure that role-based access is enforced, the VNX storage domain has implemented two
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groups. What access to objects will that administrator inherit?
A. The least restrictive privilege established by the two groups
B. The most restrictive privilege established by the two groups
C. The first group that the administrator joined
D. The last group that the administrator joined
Answer: A

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NO.7 What monitoring option is used to generate file-related notifications based on a user-defined threshold?
A. Notification Logs for File
B. Background Tasks for File
C. Event Logs for File
D. Statistics for File
Answer: A

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NO.8 You are proposing a storage solution using a VNX system. What will you tell the storage administrator
about the default setting for VNX IP address filtering?
A. Access is limited to a single Unisphere client.
B. IP address filtering does not restrict any access.
C. IP address filtering is not installed by default.
D. IP address filtering prevents all communications until the VNX system is configured.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-Y18
Exam Name: HP (ProCurve Secure Mobility Solutions)
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Total Q&A: 104 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 Which security option was part of the original 802. 11 standard?
A. 802. 1X
B. Shared-key WEP
C. Dynamic Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)
D. Wi-Fi Protected Access with preshared keys (WPA-PSK)
Answer: B

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NO.2 What does the slot time determine?
A. the number of seconds the AP waits between sending beacons
B. the length of time the station waits between detecting a transmission and sending a frame
C. the beginning of the 802. 11 frame, which enables the AP and the station to synchronize their
transmissions
D. how long the station can "sleep" before it must become active and check the AP to see if there are any
transmissions waiting for it
Answer: B

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NO.3 The ProCurve AP 420 radio has one Basic Service Set Identifier (BSSID), and each of the two AP 530
radios has 16 BSSIDs.What is the implication of this difference?
A. The AP 420 can advertise only 1 WLAN, but the AP 530 can advertise 16.
B. The AP 420 can support only 1 WLAN, but the AP 530 can support 32.
C. The AP 420 can support only 1 WLAN, but the AP 530 can support 16.
D. The AP 420 can advertise only 1 WLAN, but the AP 530 can advertise 32.
Answer: A

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NO.4 You are configuring a ProCurve AP 530.You configure two WLANs.What is one reason to enable the
first WLAN only on radio 1 and the second WLAN only on radio 2?
A. to overcome environmental obstacles
B. to double the capacity of each WLAN by using two radios
C. to separate different types of wireless traffic into different collision domains
D. to allow users to choose their radio but still connect to the same Basic Service Set (BSS)
Answer: C

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NO.5 Your company has a branch office down the street from your main office.You want to connect the
networks between the two offices, and physical cabling is not an option.Which wireless devices should
you select for this environment?
A. two ProCurve AP 420s
B. two ProCurve AP 530s
C. two RP 230s and a Wireless Edge Services xl Module
D. two RP 220s with Yagi antennas and a Wireless Edge Services zl Module
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which Quality of Service (QoS) mechanism do both the ProCurve AP 420 and the ProCurve AP 530
support?
A. Wi-Fi Multimedia (WMM)
B. SpectraLink Voice Priority (SVP)
C. Differentiated Services (DiffServ)
D. Wi-Fi Multimedia Extensions (WME)
Answer: B

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NO.7 When can a station no longer communicate with an AP?
A. when the received signal falls below 0 dBm
B. when the received signal falls below the background noise
C. when the received signal falls below the station's receiver sensitivity
D. when the received signal falls below the fade margin for the wireless cell
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is a function of ProCurve Identity Driven Manager (IDM)?
A. It identifies which wireless users must associate to the wireless network.
B. It enables you to load different configuration files onto your ProCurve Mobility Infrastructure devices.
C. It guides you in creating policies that can be applied, through RADIUS, to either wired or wireless
users.
D. It adds special features to ProCurve Manager (PCM) for configuring radio and wireless security
settings.
Answer: C

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NO.9 What purpose does the second software image on the ProCurve AP 420 serve?
A. It allows you to choose two different images to load onto the AP.
B. It allows you to keep the last software image that was loaded onto the AP.
C. It provides a failsafe image in the event the primary image becomes corrupted.
D. It provides an alternate software version in the event the primary does not support your configuration.
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is the default management username and password on the ProCurve AP 530?
A. The username is admin, and the password is admin.
B. The username is admin, and the password is procurve.
C. The username is manager, and the password is procurve.
D. The username is admin, and there is no default password.
Answer: A

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NO.11 You want ProCurve Radio Port (RP) 1's radio to function as a neighbor for RP 2's radio.RP 1 will
monitor RP 2 and take action if RP 2 becomes unavailable.You configure RP 1's radio to take which
action if RP 2 becomes unavailable? (Select two. )
A. Open its data rates.
B. Change the radio's channel.
C. Increase the radio's transmit power.
D. Order stations associated with RP 2 to roam.
E. Change the radio mode from 802. 11a to 802. 11b/g.
Answer: AC

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NO.12 Your company wants to use the 2. 4GHz frequency on both of your ProCurve AP 530 radios.What
must you do so that both radios can use this frequency?
A. Set both radios to either 802. 11g or 802. 11b.
B. Set both radios to either 802. 11g or 802. 11b, and install an external antenna for radio 2.
C. Install an 802. 11b/g card on radio 2, and set both radios to either 802. 11g or 802. 11b.
D. Set one radio to 802. 11g and one radio to 802. 11b, install an external antenna for radio 1, and
configure radio 1 to use an external antenna.
Answer: B 18. Which ProCurve AP 530 feature is most beneficial for a small to medium business that has
strong security needs?
A. It monitors for excessive probes to detect possible intrusion attempts.
B. Its internal RADIUS server provides standalone support for 802. 1X authentication.
C. Unlike the ProCurve AP 420, it can operate all 16 of its wireless LANs in closed system.
D. It supports 802. 11a, and hackers generally do not check for networks on this frequency.
Answer: B

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19. A network administrator accesses the Marketing WLAN, which is assigned to VLAN 32 on the
ProCurve AP 530.When the AP 530 submits the administrator's login credentials to the RADIUS server,
the RADIUS server returns a dynamic VLAN assignment of 10 to the AP 530.The AP 530 is using the
default settings for dynamic and static VLAN support. In which VLAN does the AP 530 place the network
administrator's traffic?
A. 32, because dynamic VLANs are disabled by default
B. the default management VLAN, because there is a VLAN conflict
C. 10, because dynamic VLAN assignments override static VLAN assignments
D. 32, because static VLAN assignments override dynamic VLAN assignments
Answer: C

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20. You are configuring a WLAN on the ProCurve AP 420.When students, faculty members, and
administrators associate to the WLAN, you want them to receive the dynamic VLAN assignment for their
particular group.However, when staff members associate to the WLAN you want their traffic to be placed
in the VLAN that is assigned to the WLAN. How do you configure the AP 420 to support these VLAN
assignments?
A. You select the Dynamic VLAN option for the WLAN.Static VLANs are supported by default.
B. You select both the Static and Dynamic VLAN options.These global options apply to the entire AP 420.
C. You select the Enable VLAN option for the WLAN.This option enables support for both static and
dynamic VLANs on this WLAN only.
D. You select the Dynamic VLAN option, which enables both static and dynamic VLANs.This global
option applies to the entire AP 420.
Answer: D

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NO.13 How many configuration files can be stored on the ProCurve AP 420?
A. 2: the startup-config and the factory default config
B. 3: the startup-config, the factory default config, and one custom config
C. 3: the factory default config, the startup-config, and the backup startup-config
D. 4: the factory default config, the startup-config, the backup startup-config, and one custom config
Answer: A

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NO.14 The ProCurve Mobility Manager (PMM) site-planning tool provides an Auto Placement tool.What does
this tool take into account as it places devices on the floor plan?
A. the existing RF interference
B. the obstacles that you have defined
C. other devices already placed on the floor plan
D. the floor plan dimensions and desired capacity
Answer: D

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NO.15 You need to provide a wireless network for a small area that will require two access points.For this
wireless network, you want to support both 802. 11b/g and 802. 11a radios throughout the entire
coverage area.What would you choose?
A. two ProCurve AP 420s
B. two ProCurve AP 530s
C. ProCurve Wireless LAN System with two Radio Port (RP) 210s
D. ProCurve Wireless LAN System with one RP 230 and one RP 210
Answer: B

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NO.16 What does Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) on the ProCurve AP 530 prevent?
A. loops over connections to stations in the wireless network
B. loops over the APs Ethernet and wireless bridge connections
C. loops over connections between stations in the wireless and the wired network
D. loops over connections between only wireless stations associated with multiple APs
Answer: B

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NO.17 Wireless networks present certain challenges.Which wireless network challenge does ProCurve
Mobility Infrastructure Solutions help you address?
A. Users are less productive when using a wireless connection.
B. 802. 11 standards do not provide any guidelines for Layer 2 roaming.
C. 802. 11 standards do not provide any encryption, so you must create VPN tunnels to each end station.
D. Multiple users connect to the network through the same AP, but access must be authorized for each
user.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-J28
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP StorageWorks Virtual Library Systems)
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Total Q&A: 68 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-04-28

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NO.1 With the maximum number of supported nodes, running the VLS software version 3.x, how many arrays
are supported in a VLS9000?
A.8
B.16
C.32
D.64
Answer: B

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A.The tapes are analyzed during backup to migrate all files. After the content is decoded, only those files
are compared to the same files from the previous backup.B.It leverages object-level differencing code
with a design centered on performance and scalability.
C.The destination tapes are block-by-block copies of the source tapes and can easily be restored by any
tape library to which the backup application has access.
D.It delivers fastest restores from recently backed up data, maintains the complete most recent copy of
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Answer: C

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NO.3 What are advantages of having separate zones for disk storage systems and disk-to-disk backup
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A.The physical and virtual tape controllers do not discover disk controllers.
B.Administrative and management costs are lower.
C.Tape multipathing functionality can be used to map the physical and virtual devices.
D.There is less host access and improved target and LUN shifting.
E.Performance is improved, due to dedicated HBAs for disk and tape access.
Answer: AE

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NO.4 When would you opt to use an HP Data Protector environment with Advanced Backup to Disk licensing
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A.when you want to use target-based compression
B.when the environment consists mainly of LAN clients
C.when you want to use existing SAN storage or locally attached storage
D.when there are many SAN hosts writing to disk
E.when there are relatively few SAN hosts writing to disk
Answer: AD

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NO.5 What is oversubscription in the context of virtual libraries?
A.more capacity allocated than physically installed
B.more libraries created than currently licensed
C.more virtual drives created than currently licensed
D.more data streams than the library can process
Answer: A

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NO.1 A template is needed for the configuration of the service hours/scheduled outages.
This template is ____________.
A. an XML file on the agent describing which action must be taken at the current time
B. located in /etc/opt/OV/share/conf/OpC/mgmt_sv/respmgrs/outage on the management
server
C. an OVO template type, that will be distributed to the agents
D. a binary file on the management server located in /etc/opt/OV/share
Answer: B

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NO.2 To determine a managed node's primary manager in a backup server flexible
management environment:
A. the management server is added to the snmp destination list on the managed node.
B. the IP address of the management server is held in the file
/var/opt/OV/share/conf/mgrconf.
C. the hostname of the management server is held in the file
/var/opt/OV/conf/OpC/primmgr.
D. the managed node responds to any OVO management server which establishes
heartbeat polling.
Answer: C

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NO.3 In an MC/Service Guard installation, which directories are located on the share
drive?
A. /opt/OV/bin
B. /opt/Oracle
C. /var/opt/OV/share and /etc/opt/OV/share
D. /etc/opt/OV
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which one of the following statements about individual messages is true?
A. When message forwarding is enabled, the managed node will send multiple copies of
configured messages to each responsible manager.
B. Managed nodes can send the same message with the same GUID to each responsible
manager listed in its' flexible management template.
C. A message sent from a managed node has a unique ID number (GUID), and only a
single instance of this message will be sent out from the agent.
D. When a message is escalated to another management server, a second message with a
new GUID is sent from the managed node to the escalation manager/
Answer: C

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NO.5 Assume that the manager-to-manager configuration has been completed. Choose
the three statements that are TRUE regarding Message Forwarding.
A. Message Forwarding is done automatically by the initiating management server.
B. The message can be forwarded to multiple managers.
C. The message status updates are propagated to the management servers which hold a
copy of the message.
D. Messages can be forwarded to managed nodes.
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.6 Escalation of messages:
A. occurs at management server level; the managed nodes continue to send messages to
their primary managers.
B. causes the original message to be acknowledged in the active browser of the operator
who escalated it, so that it is only displayed on the escalated station.
C. permits the operator to select an alternative management server to display the
escalated message.
D. allows messages from managed nodes to be sent by the managed node to a specified
secondary manager.
Answer: A

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NO.7 You have a backup OpenView Operations management server and you wish to
replicate the OVO database configuration from your production system. The
commands you will execute are ____.
A. opccfgdwn, opcmgrdist, opccfgupld
B. opccfgdwn, opccfgupld
C. opctmplexport opctmplimport
D. export data from oracle database into a file and reload it
Answer: A

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NO.8 The embedded performance component collects several metrics on the managed
node and stores the data on the managed node. After ________weeks the first week
of data is overwritten.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
Answer: C

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NO.9 The message manager must reread the configuration template for the outages if the
system administrator or an external application has changed that file.
A command line tool, _________, is available to start the (re-)configure request.
A. opccfgout -update
B. opccfgout - refresh
C. opcconfig -update
D. opcforwm -refresh
Answer: A

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NO.10 You have distributed a followthesun template to twenty managed nodes, and now
decide that two of these nodes need unique templates. What should you do?
A. Create node specific templates for those two nodes and distribute templates to the two
managed nodes.
B. Remove all templates from the respmgrs directory and distribute templates with the
Force option checked to the two managed nodes.
C. Log onto the two managed nodes and update the template from their distribution trees.
D. Perform a template distribution to the two managed nodes with the templates option
unchecked
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-714
Exam Name: HP (HP OpenView Storage Area Manager Fundamentals)
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Total Q&A: 115 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-04-28

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NO.1 When using associated LUN groups. If a requested assignment is unsuccessful for any
LUN in the group. When happens to the operation?
A. if fails for the entire group.
B. If fails for the individul logical unit.
C. It continues with an error message.
D. It prompt the user to continue or roll back the assignment.
Answer: A

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NO.2 How can HP OpenView Storage Allocator be activated? (Choose three.)
A. locally via CD-ROM
B. using the HP Openview Storage Allocator Setup Assistant
C. using the HP Openview Storage Allocator Activation Wizard
D. using the HP Open view Storage area Manager Setup Assistan
E. using the HP Open view Storage area Manager Agent Activation Wizard
Answer: A.C.D

NO.3 Exhibit, Mapped Devices (Physical Map)
What are two possible causes for the status change of the HP AstorageWorks Virtual
Array on the MAP shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. The array is powered off.
B. A disk has failed in the array.
C. One of the redundant controllers has failed.
D. One of he redundant controllers has failed
E. The only host connected to the array is turned off.
Answer: A.E

NO.4 What is recommended as an enhancement to HP OpenView Storage Allocater security
because it prevents the accidental attachment of a host without a storage
Allocater-activated Host Agent?
A. soft zoning
B. hard zoning
C. secure manager
D. individual port control
Answer: A

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NO.5 Application links in HP OpenView Storage Area Manager can be linked to ____.(Choose
three.)
A. a device class
B. the Tools Menu
C. a specific device
D. the Resource tree
E. the Application tree
Answer: A.B.C

NO.6 Which two statements are true about HP OpenView Storage Area manager Arbitrary
folders? (Choose two.)
A. they support nesting
B. they are visible from the Applications tree
C. they enable thresholds to be set on groups of resources
D. they are exclusive (a member can only belong to one folder).
Answer: A.D

NO.7 Which fibre channel switch display inactive zones in HP OpenView Storage Area
Manager?
A. Cisco
B. McData
C. Brocade
D. All switches
Answer: C

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NO.8 How can passphrases be entered?
A. right-click the device and select Configure Passphrases
B. from the Tools Configuration Menu, select Configure Passphrases
C. from th propertied page for device, select Configure Passphrases
D. edit the passphrases cfg file and enter the device name and passphrase
Answer: A

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NO.9 In order for HP Open View Storage Area Manaher to discover an HP Storage Works EVA
Array, an entry is needed in the ___panel of the Configuration window.
A. Proxy Devices
B. Management Appliances
C. Additional Storage Arrays
D. SNMP Discovery Ranges
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which three features are provided by the HP Open View Storage Area Manager device
maps? (Choose three.)
A. displays integration status with other applications
B. provides graphical display of device and link status
C. provide charting capabilities for reporting on devices
D. displays collections of discovered devices in a topology
E. provides a launching point for device management applications
Answer: B.D.E

NO.11 Organization are common to which two HP OpenView Storage Area Manager
applications? (Choose two.)
A. Storage Builder
B. Storage Allocator
C. Storage Optimizer
D. Storage Accountant
E. Storage Node Manager
Answer: A.D

NO.12 What is the purpose of a passphrase?
A. is used by Device Plug-ins (DPI) to obtain information about the device
B. allows communication of third-party applications to the HP OpenView SAM Bridge service
C. allows communication between the management server and management clients that use
DHCP
D. authorizes communication between the management server and manager-of-Managers (MoM)
clients
Answer: A

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NO.13 Why is it important to make sure that LUNs are physically and logically to an
organization by adding them to an account?
A. Te LUNs will not show up as assigned
B. LUNs will be removed from the pool of available resources.
C. Organizations can be charged for LUNs that they cannot use.
D. Usage information will be collected and no organization will be charged.
Answer: C

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NO.14 From the HP OpenView Storage Area Manager Custom Setup screen, you can select the
___.(Choose three.)
A. OS depots to install
B. Feature (applications) to install
C. Directory to install OS depot files
D. Directory to install hostagent files
E. Directory to install the management server files
Answer: A.B.E

NO.15 To which three file formats can HP OpenView Storage Accountant customer billing
information be exported? (Choose three.)
A. .txt
B. .csv
C. .xml
D. .doc
E. .html
Answer: B.C.E

NO.16 Which two statements about the HP OpenView Storage Allocator Special Unassign
command are true? (Choose two.)
A. when the command runs. It will try a regular unassignment first.
B. when the command runs. All affected hosts will be rebooted automatically
C. when the command runs. An event will be generated for each host that needs to be rebooted.
D. The Special Unassign command is available for all HP OpenView Storage Allocator
supported host operating systems.
Answer: A.C

NO.17 HP Open View Storage Aliocater Associated LUN Groups assigns____.
A. LUNs individually
B. LUNs to multiple hosts
C. Several LUNs as a unit
D. Individual LUNs from within the group
Answer: C

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NO.18 What is required to associate a price to a LUN in HP OpenView Storage Accountant?
A. assign the LUN and the to an account
B. create a service level and add the LUN to an account
C. create a billing cycle with a price associated with the LUN
D. create a service level and assign the LUN to the service level
Answer: D

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NO.19 The HP OpenViwe Storage Area Manager Setup Assistant is available ____.
A. from the Tools Menu within the management client
B. from the command line on the management server
C. automatically, immediately after management server installation
D. automatically, after the management server is rebooted after installation
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which two statements are true about adding a new license to HP OpenView Storage Area
Manager? (Choose two.)
A. it requires an HP order number.
B. It requires an internet connection
C. It uses the Auto Pass application.
D. It can be accomplished from any management client.
Answer: A.C

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Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP )
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Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-04-28

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NO.1 You create a Vraid0 LUN in an EVA with 16 disks consisting of two 8-drive RSS sets. What will happen
if a single disk fails?
A. The LUN will fail even with an RSS configured.
B. The LUN will continue to operate normally due to the redundancy provided by the RSS sets.
C. The LUN cannot be configured across two RSS sets.
D. The LUN will continue to operate at reduced performance while the RSS sets rebuild the lost data.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which statements are true about mirrorclones? (Select two.)
A. If the mirrorclone is in a normalized state, you can only detach it.
B. The redundancy (Vraid) level of a mirrorclone must be the same or higher than the source.
C. Amirrorclone delta restore may be made when the mirrorclone source is also the source for a DR
group.
D. A detached mirrorclone cannot be reattached to its source.
E. HP recommends keeping mirrorclones in the same disk group as the source.
Answer: CD

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NO.3 What is a physical segment (PSEG) in the EVA context?
A. smallest virtual disk space allocated on a disk drive
B. smallest physical disk space allocated on a disk drive
C. disk space containing information about the selected redundancy level of the virtual disk
D. data portion read from or written to a physical disk before the next physical disk is accessed
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which EVA virtualization features help reduce customer Total Cost of Ownership? (Select two.)
A. load customization
B. LUN definition ruleset
C. pre-set VRAID security
D. reduced stranded capacity
E. significantly increased utilization
Answer: DE

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NO.5 What must be considered when configuring the Internet Protocol settings of an EVA4400
management module?
A. The WOCP requires an IPv6 network.
B. The IP address range is restricted.
C. A limited set of protocols is supported.
D. The localhost alias must be disabled.
Answer: B

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NO.6 A disk group is set to double protection level and contains only Vraid1 virtual disks. What happens
when there is simultaneous loss of two physical disks from different mirrored pairs within the same
Redundant Storage Set?
A. The Vraid1 fails and there is data loss.
B. Vraid1 data migrate to Vraid5.
C. The Vraid1 virtual disk stays in degraded mode and data is preserved.
D. The Vraid1 data from the failed disks is reconstructed.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which components are mandatory Customer Self Repair (CSR) on an EVA4400, EVA6400 or
EVA8400 device shelf? (Select three.)
A. midplane
B. power supply
C. fan
D. backplane
E. disk drive
F. power UID board
Answer: BCE

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NO.8 What are required customer self-repair (replacement) parts in an EVA6400/8400? (Select two.)
A. controller cache battery
B. controller cache memory
C. hard disk drives
D. disk enclosure fan
E. Fibre Channel transceivers
Answer: CD

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NO.9 Which feature is unique to the EVA8400 / 11GB cache (per controller) model when compared to other
EVA array models?
A. use of a third cache battery
B. 400TB addressable storage space
C. up to 5GB policy memory
D. maximum of 27 device shelves
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is the source of the identifying data that is inserted into the HP CommandView EVA SNMP MIB
when it is generated?
A. SMI-S agent on management host
B. hardware ASIC in the first host port that sends the event
C. default parse file
D. controller software-specific parse file
Answer: D

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NO.11 How does releveling occur after the loss of one disk in a 16-member group containing ten 10GB
Vraid1 Vdisks?
A. The group does not need to relevel.
B. across 16 disks in the group
C. across 15 disks in the group
D. across 14 disks in the group
E. across 10 disks in the group
Answer: D

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NO.12 What happens when you set the failure protection level for a disk group with same-sized disks on an
EVA to single?
A. Two disks are reserved as spare space.
B. A one-disk equivalent is reserved as spare space.
C. One disk is reserved as spare space.
D. A two-disk equivalent is reserved as spare space.
Answer: D

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NO.13 What are functions of the web-based operator control panel of an EVA4400? (Select three.)
A. view OCP log messages
B. configure SMI-S credentials
C. restart a controller
D. perform disk firmware upgrade
E. enter WWN to initialize system
F. perform array firmware upgrade
Answer: ACE

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NO.14 Which interface is used to connect a FATA drive to an EVA controller? (Select two.)
A. single port
B. dual port
C. Serial ATA
D. Native Fibre Channel
E. Parallel ATA
Answer: BD

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NO.15 Which feature is unique to the EVA4400 compared to the EVA6400 and EVA8400?
A. support of 2048 LUNs
B. use of array-based management
C. RoHS 6 of 6 compliant disk shelves
D. large LUN support
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which service is included in the EVA6400/8400 warranty?
A. HP Support Plus service
B. HP EVA Firmware Upgrade service
C. HP Implementation service
D. HP Installation & Startup service
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which statements are true about using thin provisioning in an EVA environment? (Select two.)
A. Extension of a LUN cannot be automated.
B. Capacity utilization is increased.
C. LUN shrink is not always supported for EVA.
D. Host agents must be installed on servers.
E. It can be performed within CommandView EVA.
Answer: BD

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NO.18 for the HP EVA, where do you find error messages, status code values, meanings, and appropriate
corrective actions?
A. product replacement instructions
B. WEBES System Event Analyzer
C. product user guide
D. HP CommandView EVA
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which interconnect technology is used when integrating the mpx110 router into an EVA solution?
A. FCIP
B. FICON
C. iSCSI
D. WDM
Answer: A

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NO.20 How do you access the web-based operator control panel after installing CommandView EVA on the
management module?
A. https://<storagesystem>:2373
B. https://<storagesystem>:2372
C. https://<storagesystem>:2301
D. https://<storagesystem>:2381
Answer: A

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