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Exam Code: E20-610
Exam Name: CLARiiON
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Exam Code: E20-690
Exam Name: VNX Solutions Specialist Exam for Platform Engineers
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Exam Code: E20-891
Exam Name: Backup Recovery Solutions Expert Exam for Technology Architects
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NO.1 Which resource is required for all VNX activities performed by EMC and Partner personnel?
A. Simple VNX Support Matrix
B. Host Connectivity Guide
C. VNX Procedure Generator
D. Interoperability Matrices
Answer: C

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NO.2 Refer to the exhibit.
Which DAE and components does cable 1 connect?
A. SP A slot 0 port 1 to the SAS expander on DAE 0 LCC A
B. SP A slot 0 port 0 to the SAS expander on DAE 1 LCC A
C. SP B slot 0 port 0 to the SAS expander on DAE 1 LCC B
D. SP B slot 0 port 1 to the SAS expander on DAE 0 LCC B
Answer: A

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NO.3 Where can you find the widest range of resources for VNX-related information?
A. VNX Family Product Page
B. Support by Product
C. Partners Web Page
D. IP Storage Handbook
Answer: A

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NO.4 How are SAS bus hardware IDs configured for the VNX enclosures?
A. Automatically assigned during system boot process
B. Assigned by the address switch located on each enclosure
C. Assigned by Unisphere Service Manager
D. Assigned by the Backend Bus Reset Wizard in Unisphere
Answer: A

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NO.5 Refer to the exhibit.
Which DAE and components does cable 2 connect?
A. SP A slot 0 port 0 to the SAS expander on DAE 1 LCC A
B. SP B slot 0 port 1 to the SAS expander on DAE 0 LCC B
C. SP B slot 0 port 0 to the SAS expander on DAE 1 LCC B
D. SP A slot 0 port 1 to the SAS expander on DAE 0 LCC A
Answer: B

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NO.6 What IP address is assigned to the eth2 interface on a Control Station?
A. IP address for the B management network
B. IP address for the A management network
C. Public IP address for the customer's network
D. IP address for the peer Control Station
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which kind of back-end bus connectivity is supported on a VNX storage system?
A. 4 lane 6 Gb/s SAS
B. 4 lane 6 Gb/s FC
C. 2 lane 6 Gb/s SAS
D. 2 lane 6 Gb/s FC
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which VNX enclosures use a common motherboard architecture?
A. DME and SPE
B. DPE and SPE
C. DPE and 25-drive DAE
D. Control Station and DME
Answer: A

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Exam Name: Information Availability Design Specialist Exam for Data Center Architects
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Exam Code: E20-545
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NO.1 What is the length of RSA keys used to encrypt and decrypt network traffic in a VNX environment?
A. 2048 bits
B. 1024 bits
C. 2048 bytes
D. 1024 bytes
Answer: A

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NO.2 You are supporting a customer whose VNX hostname has recently changed. Immediately after this
change, the VNX administrators begin to receive certificate errors when they attempt to connect to the
array. You need to advise them on how to regenerate the Control Station ¯ s ce rtifi ca t e au t ho rit y and w b
server certificates.
Which command should be used?
A. server_certificate
B. server_security
C. nas_ca_certificate
D. nas_license
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which drive type benefits least from enabling FAST Cache?
A. Flash
B. NL-SAS
C. SAS
D. SATA
Answer: A

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NO.4 What monitoring option is used for file system and network performance?
A. Background Tasks for File
B. Statistics for File
C. Event Logs for File
D. Notification Logs for File
Answer: B

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NO.5 When generating a Certificate Signing Request (CSR), what is a valid statement about the certificate?
A. The Public key must be an RSA key.
B. The certificate must be set to expire within 20 years.
C. The subject ¯ s O r gan i za ti ona l U n it N a m e m us t be se t t o VNX .
D. The subject ¯ s co mm on na m e m us t be se t t o t he C on tr o l S t a ti o ¡ ¯s IP ad dr es s
Answer: A

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NO.6 In order to ensure that role-based access is enforced, the VNX storage domain has implemented two
administrative groups called Auditors and Storage Admins. One of the administrators is a member of both
groups. What access to objects will that administrator inherit?
A. The least restrictive privilege established by the two groups
B. The most restrictive privilege established by the two groups
C. The first group that the administrator joined
D. The last group that the administrator joined
Answer: A

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NO.7 What monitoring option is used to generate file-related notifications based on a user-defined threshold?
A. Notification Logs for File
B. Background Tasks for File
C. Event Logs for File
D. Statistics for File
Answer: A

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NO.8 You are proposing a storage solution using a VNX system. What will you tell the storage administrator
about the default setting for VNX IP address filtering?
A. Access is limited to a single Unisphere client.
B. IP address filtering does not restrict any access.
C. IP address filtering is not installed by default.
D. IP address filtering prevents all communications until the VNX system is configured.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: E20-016
Exam Name: EMC (Storage Networking Design Specialist Exam for Data Center Architects)
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Total Q&A: 114 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 A director contains eight port cards with four ports per card. If two of the director's port cards are
unavailable for five minutes, what is the path minute of SAN performance degradation?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 32
D. 40
Answer: D

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NO.2 An organization is using cloud storage to back up their employees
desktop data. The backup
application running at the organization s data center ensures moderate performance while backing up
data.
The application completes the entire backup within the stipulated backup window. By leveraging cloud
storage service, the backup application meets high-availability and high-recoverability requirements of
employees
data.
Based on the exhibit, which section accurately represents this application?
A. A
B. C
C. D
D. F
Answer: C

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NO.3 A multi-national bank provides online services to its customers. The bank has implemented a new credit
risk analysis system with data mining capabilities. In addition, the bank wants to provide enhanced
business intelligence to its loan officers.
The application development team has determined a 20 TB storage requirement. Which application
class(es) describe(s) this environment?
A. Enterprise
B. Workgroup
C. Externally networked
D. Workgroup and externally networked
Answer: A

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NO.4 A company is comparing two technology options for their IT environment. Option 1 is to retain the
existing legacy environment, and Option 2 will require the replacement of the current solution with a new
solution.
Option 1:
-Operation costs including maintenance of the current infrastructure = $300,000 per year -Investment in
additional storage requirements = $100,000 per year
Option 2:
-Initial cost of the new solution = $1,000,000 -Operation costs with the new infrastructure = $150,000 per
year -Investment in additional storage = $50,000 per year
The company's write-off cost for the current solution is $50,000. As a business analyst, what would you
recommend to the company based on the TCO?
A. Option 1 is feasible if the project lifespan is less than 5 years
B. Option 1 is feasible if the project lifespan is more than 6 years
C. Option 2 is feasible if the project lifespan is less than 5 years
D. Options 1 and 2 are feasible if the project lifespan is 5 years
Answer: A

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NO.5 After careful consideration, a business has decided to implement thin provisioning in its SAN
environment. Implementing thin provisioning will require the following investment:
- License costs = $100,000
- Other one-time costs (for example, training, installation) = $50,000 Continuing as is, storage
requirement projections over the next three years would total 70 TB. Employing thin provisioning will allow
the storage requirements to be reduced to 40 TB. The cost of storage is $40,000 per TB.
What is the return on investment (ROI) percentage for this project?
A. 7
B. 70
C. 700
D. 7000
Answer: C

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NO.6 An organization purchased a NAS storage infrastructure to service all its applications for three years.
Various cost components for this deployment are as follows:
- Initial cost includes the purchase cost of $2,000 and an installation charge of $400.
- Organization needs to pay $200 per year for maintenance and $100 per year as license fees.
- From Year 2, the organization must pay $1,000 per year for OS upgrades.
At the end of the three years, the organization needs to pay a recycling fee of $50 to dispose of the NAS
device that will no longer be needed.
What is the total cost of ownership (TCO) each year to implement this technology infrastructure?
A. $1,783
B. $2,675
C. $3,566
D. $5,350
Answer: A

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NO.7 Areas A, B, and C are three performance segments that represent demands of application classes.
Which application performance need is illustrated by Segment B in the exhibit.?
A. Availability
B. Interoperability
C. Ease of management
D. Throughput
Answer: A

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NO.8 Areas A, B, and C are three performance segments that represent demands of application classes.
Which application performance need is illustrated by Segment C in the exhibit?
A. Throughput
B. Availability
C. Interoperability
D. Ease of management
Answer: A

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NO.9 A company's 20 file servers were consolidated onto a NAS device at a cost of $350,000 for the
hardware and $75,000 for implementation services. The consolidated/replaced servers were written off
for the remaining book value of $75,000. The company will realize $60,000 per month due to this
consolidation.
What is the return on investment (ROI) in one year and the break-even point for the company's initial
investments?
A. 44%; Month 8
B. 44%; Month 9
C. 70%; Month 8
D. 70%; Month 9
Answer: B

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NO.10 A company's IT organization is comparing two technology proposals. Option 1 would retain existing
legacy equipment while Option 2 would replace the existing infrastructure.
Option 1:
-Total operational costs = $300,000 per year -Annual storage requirements = $100,000 per year
Option 2:
-Initial investment = $1,000,000 -Recurring annual operational costs = $150,000 per year -Annual storage
requirements = $50,000 per year
The company's write-off costs for the legacy equipment is $50,000. As a business analyst using a TCO
analysis, which course of action would you recommend?
A. Option 1 is feasible if the project lifespan is less than 5 years
B. Option 1 is feasible if the project lifespan is more than 6 years
C. Option 2 is feasible if the project lifespan is less than 5 years
D. Options 1 and 2 are feasible if the project lifespan is 5 years
Answer: A

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NO.11 A company's business operations depend on the following three applications:
A = Supply chain management
B = CAD/CAE (design)
C = e-Commerce
Which application classes are associated with these applications?
A. A=Enterprise; B=Workgroup; C=Externally networked
B. A=Externally networked; B=Workgroup; C=Enterprise
C. A=Workgroup; B=Enterprise; C=Externally networked
D. A=Workgroup; B=Externally networked; C=Enterprise
Answer: A

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NO.12 A company wants to invest in a storage networking project. What are the key business value
parameters that must be considered when making a decision to proceed with the investment?
A. Return on investment and payback period
B. Net present value and break-even point
C. Net present value and return on investment
D. Payback period and operating cost
Answer: A

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NO.13 A company is deploying a new application. During the requirements gathering process, your team has
documented several key company requirements.
What could be a key functional requirement?
A. Copying data to three different locations
B. Lower storage footprint
C. Interoperability with the existing infrastructure
D. Low administrative costs per TB/storage
Answer: A

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NO.14 A redundant switch contains eight-port cards with four ports per card. If one of the port cards is
unavailable for eight minutes before it is hot swapped, what is the resultant path minute of SAN
performance degradation?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 24
D. 32
Answer: D

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NO.15 The Present Value (PV) of $50,000 in 5 years, with a discount rate of 10% each year, is represented in
the exhibit.
A company invests $98,000 on new monitoring software for its critical database. An annual yield of
$50,000 is expected.
What is the first time the company will see its investment yielding positive returns?
A. Year 1
B. Year 2
C. Year 3
D. Year 4
Answer: C

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NO.1 An Microsoft Exchange administrator has recently encountered an issue with one of the databases in
their Exchange 2007 environment. The decision was made to perform a partial restore of only the single
database.
Based on EMC and Microsoft best practice, what are the proper ordered steps needed to complete this
task?
A.1) Dismount all databases in the storage group. 2) Restore the database replica. 3) Remove the .chk
file from the system path folder. 4) Remount all databases in the storage group.
B.1) Remove the .chk file from the system path folder. 2) Dismount all databases in the storage group. 3)
Restore the database replica. 4) Remount all databases in the storage group.
C.1) Dismount all databases in the storage group. 2) Remove the .chk file from the system path folder. 3)
Restore the database replica. 4) Remount all databases in the storage group.
D.1) Dismount all databases in the storage group. 2) Remove the .chk file from the system path folder. 3)
Remount all databases in the storage group. 4) Restore the database replica.
Answer:A

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NO.2 A customer has been creating replicas of several Microsoft Exchange mailbox servers using Replication
Manager. They have recently added a new Exchange Server 2007 mailbox host to the environment.
In addition, the customer has created a scheduled job to create replicas of five storage groups in
consecutive order. Since doing so, they notice that the newly added replica jobs seem to take a very long
time to complete.
What is the source of the problem?
A.NTFS volumes containing the databases were not formatted with the correct cluster size
B.Replication Manager job should have been configured to create the replicas simultaneously
C.Latest Replication Manager Client Service Pack was not installed on the Exchange server
D.Exchange management utilities were not installed on the Replication Manager mount host
Answer:A

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NO.3 A customer wants to provide remote disaster recovery (DR) for several critical mailbox servers in their
Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment. Local recoverability is provided by creating replicas of their
critical databases.
The customer's DR site is located 20 km away. They have already provisioned the necessary failover host
on the DR site, as well as the required Active Directory infrastructure needed to support a failover.
However, they want to minimize the total number of database copies required to provide basic failover
capabilities for the Exchange server.
Which solution would you recommend to provide remote point-of-failure recovery with the fewest local
and remote database copies?
A.R1-R2-BCV
B.Mixed Mirroring
C.STD-R1BCV-R2-BRBCV
D.STD-R1BCV-R2
Answer:A

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NO.4 Group Name Services (GNS) is enabled in an SRDF/Star solution. What is a benefit of GNS in a
SRDF/Star environment?
A.Facilitates management of SRDF/Star when there are multiple management hosts at each location
B.Distributes the Star internal definition file to the Symmetrix arrays at both target locations
C.Propagates the composite group definitions over SRDF links
D.Restarts the SRDF daemon in the event it stops unexpectedly
Answer:A

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NO.5 As reflected in the exhibit, a customer has a Cascaded SRDF/Star environment. Site B fails and they
undertake a reconfiguration to provide remote data protection between Sites A and C.
What is used to determine the invalid tracks that must be moved from Site A to Site C?
A.Inclusive OR of two SDDF bitmaps at Site A
B.Inclusive OR of two SDDF bitmaps at Site A and a bitmap at Site C
C.Inclusive OR of two SDDF bitmaps at Site B
D.Inclusive OR of two SDDF bitmaps at Site C
Answer:A

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NO.6 A Microsoft SQL Server database administrator wants to execute backups using Solutions Enabler SRM
functionality. Which ODBC variable(s) needs to be set to enable the symioctl and symrdb command set?
A.SYMCLI_RDB "CONNECT" and "TYPE" environment variables
B.SYMCLI_RDB "NAME" and "TYPE" environment variables
C.Only the SYMCLI_RDB "Connect" to the database "username/password"
D.Only the SYMCLI_RDB "TYPE" variable to "sqlserver"
Answer:A

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NO.7 In the event of a physical disk spindle failure, how would a customer with Microsoft SQL Server
maximize availability?
A.Logs should be on RAID 1 volumes with data volumes on separate RAID 6 volumes
B.Logs should be on RAID 1 volumes with data volumes on separate RAID 5 volumes
C.Logs and data files should be on separate RAID 5 volumes
D.Logs and data files should be on separate RAID 1-protected volumes
Answer:A

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NO.8 A customer's SQL database has been experiencing performance degradation every time a particular
query is run. When designing the storage layout, all user databases were properly sized according to
EMC best practices.
Which storage configuration could be the source of the problem?
A.Tempdb and user databases are sharing spindles
B.MDF and LDF files are not sharing spindles
C.RAID 5 protection has been used for Tempdb
D.Data files are spread over striped metavolumes
Answer:A

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NO.9 An SRDF/Star solution has been proposed. The customer is slow to accept the solution because they
are concerned about the reliability of the RDF daemon.
How would you address the customer's concern?
A.RDF daemons will be deployed on multiple management stations at the workload site. The RDF
daemons will cooperate with each other.
B.RDF daemon process runs on the Symmetrix array and has built-in redundancy.
C.RDF daemon process runs on the Symmetrix array. If the workload site RDF daemon fails, the RDF
daemon from one of the other sites will take over.
D.RDF daemons will be deployed on one management station at each of the three sites. If the workload
site RDF daemon fails, one of the RDF daemons from the other two sites will take over.
Answer:A

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NO.10 A customer is migrating their Microsoft Exchange 2007 server from a NAS back end to a new
Symmetrix V-Max SE array. As illustrated in the exhibit, perfmon was used to create a log view of an
average day's activity against the database LUN of the busiest datastore in the Exchange environment.
This will serve as the performance benchmark for all other database LUNs. There are an additional four
mailbox databases on this server.
How many RAID 1-protected 15k rpm spindles are required to satisfy the performance needs of the
customer for all the mailbox databases on this server?
A.10
B.26
C.38
D.50
Answer:D

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NO.11 A customer has implemented Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 in an SRDF environment with replicas
being taken at the disaster recovery (DR) site. During testing of this solution, they have failed over
Exchange operations to the DR site. The Exchange mailbox server appears to come online, but user
mailboxes are inaccessible. The Exchange Management Console shows all mailboxes marked with a
small red "x" over the mailbox icons.
Which course of action will resolve this issue?
A.Ensure the Exchange mailbox server at the DR site can communicate with an Active Directory Domain
Controller
B.Recover the database from the BCV copies available at the DR site
C.Ensure that the World Wide Web service on the Exchange server at the DR site has started
successfully
D.Recover the database from the remote BCV copies available at the primary site
Answer:A

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NO.12 A customer is running Concurrent SRDF/Star. The disaster recovery (DR) plan allows for the workload
to be switched to either the synchronous site or the asynchronous site. In addition, part of their DR plan is
to enable SRDF/Star protection once the workload site comes back online.
Which advice should be given to the customer?
A.If production fails over to the synchronous site, it is possible to run in a Star-protected configuration after
the return of the original workload site.
B.If production fails over to either the asynchronous site or synchronous site, it is not possible to run in a
Star-protected configuration from either site after the return of the original workload site.
C.If production fails over to either the asynchronous site or synchronous site, it is possible to run in a
Star-protected configuration from either site after the return of the original workload site.
D.If production fails over to the asynchronous site, it is possible to run in a Star-protected configuration
after the return of the original workload site.
Answer:A

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NO.13 A new Cascaded SRDF customer is running in SRDF/A mode from the source (R1) site to the
disk-based secondary (R21) site. In this scenario, which SRDF mode is permitted between the R21 and
the R2 sites?
A.Adaptive Copy Disk
B.Adaptive Copy Write Pending
C.Synchronous
D.Asynchronous
Answer:A

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NO.14 Refer to the Exhibit.You have been asked to configure a Cascaded SRDF solution at a customer site.
The production site will be at Site A, the synchronous target will be at Site B, and the asynchronous target
at Site C.
Which kind of RDF devices will be needed at each site?
A.R1 at Site A, R21 at Site B, and R2 at Site C
B.R11 at Site A, R21 at Site B, and R22 at Site C
C.R11 at Site A, R21 at Site B, and R2 at Site C
D.R1 at Site A, R2 at Site B, and R21 at Site C
Answer:A

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NO.15 A customer is planning an SRDF/Star configuration as shown in the exhibit. The customer wants to
switch production to the synchronous target in the event of a workload site fault.
In addition to the Base and SRDF Solutions Enabler licenses, which licenses are recommended at the
synchronous target?
A.TimeFinder/Clone and TimeFinder/CG
B.TimeFinder/Mirror and TimeFinder/Clone
C.TimeFinder/Snap and TimeFinder/CG
D.TimeFinder/Snap and TimeFinder/Mirror
Answer:A

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NO.16 A customer wants to use Replication Manager to replicate and mount, at the file group level, a Microsoft
SQL Server database. What must be done before creating a Replication Manager file group replication
job?
A.Ensure no other data files are on the same volume with the selected file group
B.Copy the log files along with the file group data files
C.Use the recover database option when mounting a file group
D.Create a TimeFinder device group that contains only the file group data files
Answer:A

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NO.17 A customer has three data centers that are used to run SRDF/AR multi-hop on Symmetrix DMX-4
arrays.
Production is located at Site A
Secondary site is located at Site B
Tertiary site is located at Site C
In the event of a Site A failure, the customer wants to be able to fail over to Site C while retaining the
ability to have remote data protection. Which solution will offer the best RPO and RTO for this customer?
A.Cascaded SRDF
B.Latest version of SRDF/AR
C.Concurrent SRDF
D.SRDF/EDP
Answer:A

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NO.18 A customer wants to use TimeFinder/Exchange Integration Module (TF/EIM) to create daily local
replicas of a critical Microsoft Exchange 2007 mailbox server. Using Terminal Services, they connect
remotely to the backup server and execute the following command:
exbackup2007 -v -vss -s [servername\] -preestablish
The command runs up until the point where TF/EIM attempts to mount the volumes, then it fails. Why is
the process unable to complete?
A.Exbackup is not supported using a terminal session
B.Correct VSS Provider was not installed
C."copyonly" switch must be specified the first time a backup is run
D.Exbackup does not have the permissions needed to run on the backup host
Answer:A

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NO.19 Click the Calculator icon in the upper left-hand corner.
A customer is migrating their SQL server from a NAS back end to a new RAID 1-protected Symmetrix
V-Max SE array. Perfmon was used to create a log view of an average day's activity against the database
LUN as represented in the exhibit. Unfortunately the database's data file and transaction log are located
on the same LUN. The database administrator has informed you that this database typically processes 25
GB worth of transactions over the course of their 12-hour business day.
Which discount in IOPS should be taken before determining the number of spindles required for the data
file LUN?
A.75
B.152
C.176
D.365
Answer:A

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NO.20 A composite group spanning two Symmetrix arrays is set up to run SRDF/Star using Cascaded SRDF
as illustrated in the exhibit. What is one of the necessary conditions before the SRDF daemon at Site A
will perform an MSC cycle switch?
A.Transmit delta sets from Site B to Site C have finished
B.SDDF bitmaps have been swapped at Site A
C.Invalid track count between Sites A and C is less than 30000
D.SYMCLI_STAR_ALLOW_CASCADED_CONFIGURATION option must be enabled in the option file
Answer:A

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Exam Code: E22-290
Exam Name: EMC (EMC Data Domain Deduplication, Backup and Recovery Exam)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 104 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-04-18

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NO.1 A customer has a backup environment with an EMC Data Domain system usinq DD Boost as Illustrated In
the exhibit.Distributed Segment Processing IS enabled
Which component segments the data in the deduplication process?
A.LAN Clients
B.Backup Server
C.Data Domain system A
D.Data Domain system B
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which EMC Data Domain technology allows inline deduplication toccur fast and efficientty?
A.SISL scaling architecture
B.Data Domain Data Invulnerability Architecture
C.DDBoost
D.SATA
Answer: A

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NO.3 Why would you increase the MTU size on an EMC Data Domain system?
A.Maximize performance when using 10Gb Ethernet
B.Support Ethernet frames smaller than 1500 bytes
C.Support 1 Gb/s Ethernet frames
D.Maxi mize performance when using 100 Mb/s Fast Ethernet
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer has enabled CIFS and configured the CIFS shares on an EMC Data Domain system to
allow access through a Symantec NetBackup Media Server.What is a step that must be done on the
Media Server tenable read/write access tthe shared directory and configure the devices?
A.Configure a NetBackup disk pool to be used by the NetBackup devices
B.Enable the DD Boost plugin on the NetBackup Media Server
C.Create a mapped network drive that reconnects when the NetBackup service is started
D.Confi gure the NetBackup servi ces tstart as a user that has access tthe share
Answer: D

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NO.5 An EMC Data Domain customer has setup a DVTL for their backup software.They created slots, drives,
and tapes.The backup software shows the tape drives and the robot, but not the tapes
Which step was missed on the Data Domain system?
A.Tape labels are not defined
B.Configure Fibre Channel LUN masking
C.Incorrect media type is defined
D.Import the virtuel tapes in the VTL
Answer: D

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NO.6 A customer is implementing an EMC Data Domain system over CIFS using Symantec NetBackup.How
would the Data Domain system be configured on the backup server?
A.adv_file device
B.Jukebox
C.Storage unit
D.Backup-to-diskfolder
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the default behavior for messages log files in an EMC Data Domain system?
A.Every day at 06:00 a new log file is opened and the previous log file is deleted
B.Every Sunday at 03:00 a new log file is opened and the previous log file is deleted
C.Every Sunday at 03:00 a new log file is opened and the previous log file is renamed
D.Every day at 06:00 a new log file is opened and the previous log file is renamed
Answer: C

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NO.8 A customer is currently using an EMC Data Domain system with VTL configured over Fibre
Channel.They have a requirement tarchive to tape Which process is used to transport data to tape?
A.Use the tape export function on the Data Domain system
B.Use the backup software to move backup data to tape
C.Use the Enterprise Manager on the Data Domain system
D.Use the VTL intertace to eject tapes to ptrysical tapes
Answer: B

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NO.9 What does the term "compression factor" refer tin the exhibit?
A.Aggregate data reduction ratio
B.Data sent tthe EMC Data Domain system
C.Space used after compression
D.Total available space remaining
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is a benefit of snapshots on an EMC Data Domain system?
A.Requires ndisk space to store
B.Provides NDMP backups ta remote site
C.Included with the replication license
D.Provides data restoration from a specific point in time for deleted data
Answer: D

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NO.11 A customer has an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) environment with multiple EMC Data Domain
systems.Backups are stored on Data Domain system A and replicated to Data Domain system B.The
Tape Library contains a copy pool
Based on the exhibit, how many copies of the data must the TSM server database track at the primary
site?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer: B

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NO.12 A customer is implementing an EMC Data Domain system in their EMC NetWorker environment using
CIFS as illustrated in the exhibit A CIFS share named "bkp001" has been created on the Data Domain
system
How should the backup device be configured in NetWorker?
A.rd=sn_A\\dd01\bkp001
B.\\dd01\bkp001
C.rd=ddOl/bkp001
D.rd=server_A\\dd01\bkp001
Answer: A

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NO.13 When using link aggregation across Ethernet ports on an EMC Data Domain system.which OSllayers
provide load balancing by use of the IP layer?
A.1 and3
B.1 and4
C.2and3
D.3and4
Answer: D

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NO.14 A customer is attempting tcreate a read-only copy of their backup data on an EMC Data Domain system
tachieve additional protection.Which Data Domain system feature would accomplish this requirement?
A.Snapshot
B.Data Invulnerability Architecture
C.Fastcopy
D.Retention Lock
Answer: A

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NO.15 An organization currentvwites backups tan EMC Data Domain system and then creates encrypted
copies of their backups on tapes.These tapes are then shipped ta thi rd-party offsite vault
They are now planning tdeploy a second Data Domain system to a secure data center at their corporate
headquarters as a replication target treplace the use of the offsite tapes The twsites are connected
through the Internet
Where should encryption be applied on the Data Domain systems tensure a similar level of data security
as achieved by their current process?
A.Encrypt the data at rest
B.Encrypt the replication context
C.Encrypt the data at rest and the replication context
D.Encryption is not required
Answer: B

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Exam Code: E20-690
Exam Name: EMC (VNX Solutions Specialist Exam for Platform Engineers)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 116 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-04-18

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NO.1 Where can you find the widest range of resources for VNX-related information?
A. VNX Family Product Page
B. Support by Product
C. Partners Web Page
D. IP Storage Handbook
Answer: A

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NO.2 A new VNX Unified system has been installed. The engineer would like to verify that the hosts are
running a supported operating system and EMC PowerPath software version. What resource should be
used?
A. VNX Simple Support Matrix
B. VNX Procedure Generator
C. VNX Installation Toolkit
D. VNX Product Support Bulletins
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer asks your help in determining which types of DPE and disk drives are supported in a VNX
storage system. How would you respond?
A. 2U DPE with either fifteen 2.5 ± SAS o r t w en t -five 3.5" EFD disk drives
B. 3U DPE with either fifteen 3.5 ± EFD , SAS o r t w en t -five 2.5" SAS disk drives
C. 4U DPE with either fifteen 3.5 ± FC , EFD o r t w en t -five .2.5" SAS disk drives
D. 3U DPE with either fifteen 2.5 ± EFD , FC o r t w en t -five 2.5 ± EFD d i sk d ri ves
Answer: B

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NO.4 Refer to the exhibit.
Which DAE and components does cable 1 connect?
A. SP A slot 0 port 1 to the SAS expander on DAE 0 LCC A
B. SP A slot 0 port 0 to the SAS expander on DAE 1 LCC A
C. SP B slot 0 port 0 to the SAS expander on DAE 1 LCC B
D. SP B slot 0 port 1 to the SAS expander on DAE 0 LCC B
Answer: A

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NO.5 Refer to the exhibit.
Which DAE and components does cable 2 connect?
A. SP A slot 0 port 0 to the SAS expander on DAE 1 LCC A
B. SP B slot 0 port 1 to the SAS expander on DAE 0 LCC B
C. SP B slot 0 port 0 to the SAS expander on DAE 1 LCC B
D. SP A slot 0 port 1 to the SAS expander on DAE 0 LCC A
Answer: B

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NO.6 Refer to the exhibit.
Which component is located in location 3?
A. CS 1
B. CS 0
C. DAE 0
D. DAE 1
Answer: A

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NO.7 What are the minimum components required to configure a VNX5500 for Block storage system?
A. Control Station, SP, DAE
B. Control Station, SP, DME
C. SP, DME, DAE
D. SPS, SPE, DAE
Answer: D

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NO.8 Refer to the exhibit.
Where is DM 3 located?
A. Location 6
B. Location 5
C. Location 7
D. Location 10
Answer: A

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NO.9 What IP address is assigned to the eth2 interface on a Control Station?
A. IP address for the B management network
B. IP address for the A management network
C. Public IP address for the customer's network
D. IP address for the peer Control Station
Answer: A

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NO.10 What protocols does the Data Mover support.?
A. CIFS, NFS, pNFS and MPFS
B. CIFS, pNFS, and SCSI
C. MPFS, HTTP, FTP, and NFS
D. NFS, FC, and CIFS
Answer: A

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NO.11 How are SAS bus hardware IDs configured for the VNX enclosures?
A. Automatically assigned during system boot process
B. Assigned by the address switch located on each enclosure
C. Assigned by Unisphere Service Manager
D. Assigned by the Backend Bus Reset Wizard in Unisphere
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which resource is required for all VNX activities performed by EMC and Partner personnel?
A. Simple VNX Support Matrix
B. Host Connectivity Guide
C. VNX Procedure Generator
D. Interoperability Matrices
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which kind of back-end bus connectivity is supported on a VNX storage system?
A. 4 lane 6 Gb/s SAS
B. 4 lane 6 Gb/s FC
C. 2 lane 6 Gb/s SAS
D. 2 lane 6 Gb/s FC
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which VNX enclosures use a common motherboard architecture?
A. DME and SPE
B. DPE and SPE
C. DPE and 25-drive DAE
D. Control Station and DME
Answer: A

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NO.15 What IP address is assigned to the eth3 interface on a Control Station?
A. IP address for the A management network
B. IP address for the B management network
C. Public IP address for the customer's network
D. IP address for the peer Control Station
Answer: C

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Exam Name: EMC (Backup Recovery Solutions Expert Exam for Technology Architects)
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Total Q&A: 118 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-04-18

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NO.1 An existing EMC Data Domain customer wants to know the way to integrate Data Domain
with RMAN to their tape library. How would this integration take place?
A. Use RMAN and Media Manager Layer to backup the application
B. Use RMAN with NFS to write to tape
C. Use RMAN with DD Boost to move data to the tape library
D. Use RMAN with dNFS to write to the tape library
Answer: A

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NO.2 While installing an EMC Avamar deduplication node in a NetWorker backup solution, the
Microsoft Windows client backup jobs fail to run. Which process should be running on the client
during the backup?
A. nsravtar
B. nsravamar
C. nsrim
D. nsrndmpsv
Answer: A

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NO.3 An EMC customer is currently backing up their Microsoft Exchange database to an EMC
Avamar server. The backups are setup to full on Friday, skip on Sunday, and only
transaction logs backed up the rest of the week. The customer would like to integrate Data Domain
to Avamar and run the database backups to the Data Domain system.
If a Data Domain system is deployed on Sunday, which type of backup runs on the following Monday?
A. Full database backup
B. Transaction logs backup
C. Backups will be skipped
D. Level 1 backup of the database
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer is planning to use EMC NetWorker integrated with Data Domain to backup their
enterprise. Data Domain will be used to replicate backups to an offsite location to satisfy regulatory
requirements. The customer is concerned about the difficulty in managing their backups and
backup clones with two interfaces.
What could be done to simplify the management of backups and clones?
A. Configure DD Boost with NetWorker and use clone-controlled replication.
B. Configure pre and post scripts to handle the cloning.
C. Create one backup job for cloning and one additional job for local copies.
D. Create scripts to run through the CLI to handle daily cloning.
Answer: A

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NO.5 An EMC NetWorker customer wants to add their new Microsoft SharePoint distributed farm to
their backup environment. The farm contains three servers. One server contains the web front-end
and the other two servers each contain two SQL databases.
How is the number of the client resources determined?
A. One resource for each server in the farm
B. One resource for each SQL database in the farm and one for the web front-end server
C. Only one resource for the entire farm
D. One resource for each SQL database in the farm
Answer: A

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NO.6 A customer has implemented EMC Data Domain Boost for Oracle RMAN software in their
environment and are successfully backing up several Oracle servers. Backups are directed to a local
Data Domain system and a second Data Domain system was configured at their disaster recovery
site as a target for replication.
What needs to be done to create copies of the backup data on the remote system that are tracked
and recoverable by RMAN?
A. Modify the RMAN script to include backup copies
B. Configure directory replication between the Data Domain systems
C. Configure Mtree replication between the Data Domain systems
D. Create a second RMAN script for the second Data Domain system
Answer: A

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NO.7 You are planning an MS SQL backup solution for a customer using EMC NetWorker and NMM
without a proxy client. Which user privilege must be configured on NetWorker?
A. Add the NMM client to the NetWorker Administrator user group
B. Add the NetWorker Administrator to the NMM remote user setting
C. Add the NMM client to the MS Windows administrators user group
D. Add the NMM client to the Operators user group
Answer: A

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NO.8 An EMC NetWorker customer has just started running backups of their new Microsoft
SharePoint distributed farm. They are concerned that their web applications are not being backed
up.
What can you tell the customer about backing up web applications?
A. Web applications are backed up with the corresponding content database
B. Add the web application name to the save set field for the client hosting the content database
C. Create a separate client resource for each web application
D. Web applications must be backed up with a file system backup method
Answer: A

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NO.9 A customer has an EMC Data Domain appliance that has reached 90% of maximum capacity.
The customer does not want to purchase any additional storage.
What will increase the average available capacity of the Data Domain appliance?
A. Decrease the backup retention period
B. Decrease the cleaning frequency
C. Increase the snapshot expiration period
D. Increase the number of streams
Answer: B

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NO.10 A customer recently integrated EMC Avamar into their existing NetWorker datazone. After
creating a deduplication client and defining the NetWorker deduplication node, the backup is
started. However, the backup failed.
What must be done to perform a successful backup?
A. Create a local AFTD on the storage node to store deduplication metadata
B. Create an AFTD on the Avamar server to store deduplication metadata
C. Create an AFTD to store the deduplication indexes
D. Create an AFTD to store the additional bootstrap information
Answer: A

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Exam Name: EMC (Technology Architect Backup and Recovery Solutions Design Exam)
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Total Q&A: 206 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-04-09

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NO.1 A customer has a Data Domain appliance that has reached 90% of maximum capacity. The customer
does not want to purchase any additional storage.
Wht will increase the average available capacity of the Data Domain appliance?
A. Decrease the backup retention period
B. Increase the snapshot expiration period
C. Increase the nurrter of strearns
D. Decrease the cleaning frequency
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer has an operational EMC NetWorker enviroment using an Avamar deduplication node. They
want to protect the Avamar deduplication node using replication. The customer has approached EMC for
advice on what considerations thaey should take into account.
What is a consideration in this envitonment.?
A. NetWorker automatically configures all replication targets associated with a given deduplication node
B. Scheduled replications of a NetWorker deduplication node must be set up in Avamar
C. Recovery from the replications node must be performed from Avamar Administror
D. Schedled replications of a NetWorker deduplication node must be set up in NetWorkwe
Answer: B

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NO.3 As illustrated in the exhibit, a customer has a backup environment that includes clients and server
managed by a backup media server. Data is written to a primary storage device and archived to an
application server. The customer has onsite retention strorage, which is replicated to a disaster recovery
site. In addition, archive-to-tape is requires.
Which components would you replace when initiating a Data Domain solution?
A. onsite retention storage and offsite disaster recivery storage
B. Backup media server and clients
C. Primary storage and onsite retention storage
D. Backup media server and archive application server
Answer: A

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NO.4 The EMC account team has been asked to design a NetWorkwwe backup solution with the following
requirements.
1. One copy of backup data needs to be stored locally.
2. An additional copy of backup data needs to be stored on tape at an offsite location.
What should be done to satisfy the new regulations with minimal impact to the current backup
performance?
A. Clone to tape and send the clone copy to the remote location
B. Back up the data concurrently to the remote and local locations
C. Archive the backup data to the remote location
D. Archive the data to the remote location before being backed up locally
Answer: C

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NO.5 An EMC NetWorker customer wants to use the deduplication option. The requirement for a database
server in their enviroment is to perform deduplication backups for file system data and NetWorker tape
backups for database data. They want to allow a maximum of two parallel streams for file system backups
and a maximum of four steams for database backups.
How can this be accomplished?
A.
B.
C.
Group: Bsckups
Parallelism: 0
Client for FS backups
Parallelism: 2
Client for FS backups
Parallelism: 4
D.
Group: Bsckups
Parallelism: 4
Client for FS backups
Parallelism: 2
Client for FS backups
Parallelism: 4
Answer: C

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NO.6 A customer is using Data Protection Advisor (DPA) to moitor their backup enviroment. What is a
benefit of using remote Collectors?
A. Reduces the amount of information being transferred to the DPA server
B. Collects system-related statistics for a given host
C. Improves the collection performance of backup statistics
D. Provides more complete backup reports
Answer: B

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NO.7 An EMC Avamar customer s Gen-1 system with 4 TB of GSAN capacity has reached read-only
threshold. The customer indicates that the deduplicated backup data accounts for approximately 3.5 TB.
What is the most likely cause for the read-only threshold being reached?
A. Deduplication rate is less than expected, accounting for the remaining GSAN capacity
B. Combination of system overhead, logs, and checkpoints account for the remaining GSAN capacity
C. RAIN overhead accounts for the remaining available GSAN capacity
D. Checkpoints and logs account for the remaining GSAN capacity
Answer: C

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NO.8 Acustomer is piloting a Data Domain appliance and notices that performance in the writing of backups is
not optimal. Based on the System Show Performance metrics represented in the exhibit, which operation
will provide the most improved the most improved performance?
A. Reduce the read streams
B. Suspend verification
C. Disable cleaning
D. Disable replication
Answer: A

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NO.9 Click the Calculator icon in the upper left-hand corner.
Acustomer has a new Avamar server with four 2 TB data nodes. This server is backing up two Avamar
clients. The first client has 8 GB of RAM and two file systems. The first file system has 3 million files
consuming. 75 TB. The second file system contains 5 million files consuming 1 TB of space.
The second client has 10 GB of RAM and one file system containing 4 million files consuming 1.2 TB of
space. Both clients will belong to the same backup group. How long will the steady-state backup group be
expected to run?
A. 5 hours
B. 6 hours
C. 7 hours
D. 8 Hours
Answer: B

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NO.10 An organization is backing up a combination of databases, e-mail, and file system data types in their
data center to a Data Domain appliance using a single backup server. The backup system administrator
creates separate subdirectories for each of the three data types under the default share.
What benefit is provided by this approach?
A. Analyze compression with more granularity
B. Simplity backup device configuration
C. Enhance performance of the database backup
D. Improve file system cleaning performance
Answer: B

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