2013年7月1日星期一

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Exam Code: EX0-103

Exam Name: EXIN (ISO/IEC 20000 Foundation)

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NO.1 The Service Provider should check that the Service Management objectives and the plan are being
achieved. Which of the following items is not measured as part of this monitoring, measuring or review?
A. Customer satisfaction
B. Major non-conformities
C. Problems
D. Resource utilization
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the objective of a Management System?
A. to define, agree, record and manage levels of services
B. to ensure that Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) are defined for all IT services
C. to ensure that new services and changes to services will be deliverable and manageable at the agreed
cost and services quality
D. to provide the policies and the framework that is needed for the effective management and
implementation of all IT services
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the added value of a service being delivered?
A. You can specifically define the service by means of a Service Level Agreement (SLA).
B. You do not have the ownership of specific costs and risks in producing the service.
C. You do not have to invest in a process to control it.
D. The outcomes have a lower total cost of ownership than when the value is produced within the
customer organization.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following must be included within the Service Management plan?
A. Configuration Item (CI) type
B. Information security controls
C. Return to normal working
D. Tools as appropriate to support the processes
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which service changes should be documented in change records?
A. all service changes
B. formal closure of services
C. staff recruitment
D. user training
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which statement below is not a purpose of Supplier Management procedures?
A. that business transactions between all parties are recorded
B. that information on the performance of all suppliers can be observed and acted upon
C. that it is made clear that the supplier cannot subcontract part of the delivered services to the Service
Provider
D. that the suppliers understand their obligation to the Service Provider
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following tasks is assigned to each process manager?
A. channeling data to Problem Management
B. ensuring the process is running effectively and efficiently
C. following up on Incidents
D. setting up Service Level Agreements with the users
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is accreditation in the context of ISO/IEC 20000?
A. the determination of measurement results using defined procedures on the basis of documented
requirements
B. the evaluation of test results to verify compliance with requirements plus confirmation by the
certification body
C. the notification of approved testing and certification bodies with the relevant authority for publication
D. the official recognition by a third party of organizations involved in testing, inspection and certification
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the aspects listed below is included in ISO/IEC 20000?
A. customer communication
B. employee motivation
C. social responsibility
D. standard products
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following is Problem Management primarily concerned with?
A. looking at Security Plans
B. looking at the cause of Incidents
C. looking at the Change Plan
D. looking at the Release Strategy
Answer: B

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Exam Code: MOFF

Exam Name: EXIN (MOFF Microsoft Operations Framework 4.0 Foundation)

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NO.1 Which role type investigates and resolves an underlying problem?
A. Customer Service Representative
B. Incident Resolver
C. Problem Analyst
D. Problem Manager
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is compliance?
A. An application of risk management that ensures IT's conformance with company-specific policies,
governmental regulations and laws
B. A design that involves understanding the business requirements and defining the features that users
need to do their job
C. A plan that aligns an organization objectives into a cohesive approach to deliverservices that support
business strategyA plan that aligns an organization? objectives into a cohesive approach to deliver
services that support business strategy
D. A state that occurs when the technical and business goals of the IT organization match the goals of the
overall business
Answer: A

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NO.3 The Change and Configuration Management SMF has a set of processes assigned to it. Which process
is the first in order?
A. Approve the change
B. Baseline the configuration
C. Classify the Change
D. Initiate the Change
Answer: B

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NO.4 Does the concept ision?identify what a project team can accomplish within its constraints Does the
concept ision?identify what a project team can accomplish within its constraints.?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B

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NO.5 Performing IT accounting is part of which SMF?
A. Business/IT Alignment SMF
B. Financial Management SMF
C. Policy Management SMF
D. Reliability Management SMF
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is a process within the Service Monitoring and Control SMF?
A. Continuous monitoring
B. Purge event logs
C. Service monitoring requirements
D. Static monitoring definition
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which Management Review evaluates IT staff performance and operational efficiency?
A. Operational Health review
B. Policy & Control review
C. Release Readiness review
D. Service Alignment review
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which SMF has 'Filter the problem' as a process step?
A. Customer Service
B. Service Monitoring and Control
C. Operations
D. Problem Management
Answer: D

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NO.9 What does the Reliability SMF process flow include?
A. Assess, monitor and control risk
B. Define service requirements
C. Ensure good service
D. Maintain work instructions
Answer: B

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NO.10 Does the Team SMF ensure that someone is ultimately accountable for the work required in the Plan
Phase?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A

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Exam Code: EX0-115

Exam Name: EXIN (IT Service Management Foundation based on ISO/IEC 20000)

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NO.1 Through which process does the implementation of new or changed services, including closure of a
service, need to be planned and approved.?
A. Business Relationship Management
B. Change Management
C. Release Management
D. Service Level Management
Answer: B

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NO.2 Deming proposed a system of continuous improvement.
Which four activities does this system involve?
A. Plan. Do. Check and Act
B. Plan. Do. Evaluate and Act
C. Plan. Perform. Audit and Improve
D. Plan. Perform. Evaluate and Act
Answer: A

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NO.3 In recent months at a transport company with 1500 desktops, dozens of requests have been received
for expansion of the internal memory because its size has proven to be insufficient.
Which process should have prevented this from happening?
A. Capacity Management
B. Service Level Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Availability Management
Answer: A

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NO.4 What has to be included in a well defined process?
A. Expected outcomes
B. Functions
C. Statistical support
D. Timelines
Answer: A

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NO.5 One of the activities of Problem Management is the analysis of historical Incident and Problem data held
in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) in order to understand trends.
Which aspect of Problem Management accomplishes this?
A. Error Control
B. Identification of root causes
C. Proactive Problem Management
D. Problem Control
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is known as a temporary solution that enables the user to continue working?
A. Known Error
B. Request For Change (RFC)
C. Service Request
D. Workaround
Answer: D

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NO.7 Different types of events are reported to the Service Desk. Which event is an incident?
A. Information about the rollout of a specific application
B. A notification that a new toner cartridge has just been installed in a printer
C. A report that the printer is not working
D. A request for the installation of a new bookkeeping package
Answer: C

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NO.8 Quality Management Systems can assist organizations in enhancing what?
A. Customer satisfaction
B. ISO/EC 20000
C. Relationship with third parties
D. Supplier satisfaction
Answer: A

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NO.9 What would increase the amount of detail in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)?
A. Increasing the scope of the CMDB
B. Increasing the number of attributes of each Configuration Item (CI) in the CMDB
C. Increasing the number of records in the CMDB
D. Increasing the use of the CMDB
Answer: B

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NO.10 What is a Configuration Baseline?
A. A benchmark of the service provider's capability
B. A configuration audit report
C. A snapshot of the state of an IT Service or individual Configuration Item (CI) at a point in time
D. The change requests allocated to a release
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which process includes the responsibility of recovering the service as quickly as possible?
A. Availability Management
B. IT Service Continuity Management
C. Incident management
D. Problem Management
Answer: C

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Exam Code: E20-616

Exam Name: EMC (Symmetrix Installation and Troubleshooting Specialist)

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NO.1 Click the exhibit button.
You are viewing the rear of the DMX1000 card cage. Which card is CCM0?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: D

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NO.2 How is DPR enabled?
A. By the EMC z/OS Storage Manager
B. In the bin file
C. Inlines Command
D. On the host by z/OS
Answer: B

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NO.3 All the memory slots in a DMX-1000 are occupied. In this case, what is run from the procedure Wizard
to perform Memory Replacement?
A. Add Memory Board script to the Universal slot script, run Replace Memory Board Script, and replace
that board
B. Remove Memory Board script first and then Add Memory Board Script
C. Replace Memory Board script
D. Upgrade Memory Board script
Answer: B

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NO.4 A customer wants to change Host Directors to support SRDF. What distinguishes one director type
from another within a Symmetrix 8000 series?
A. Director model number
B. Director revision
C. Emulation code
D. Enginuity code level
Answer: C

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NO.5 Click the exhibit button.
The customer has handed you this service alert error message. What is the error?
A. Alarm signal set
B. PC failed to call home due to communication problems
C. Temperature problems
D. Mirror device is not ready at time of periodic test
Answer: D

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NO.6 A DMX-2 memory configuration containing four (4) memory boards is to be upgraded to larger size
cache boards. The upgrade results in a two (2) memory board configuration. How will the bandwidth of
the DMX-2 be affected by the upgrade?
A. Decreased by the smaller cache card count
B. Increased by the larger memory size
C. Unchanged, only memory size is affected
D. Will remain at the theoretical maximum
Answer: B

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NO.7 When will a customer's host be able to access the data on a BCV?
A. After the BCV is established
B. After the BCV is split
C. When the BCV is created in the Bin
D. While the BCV is syncing with the data volume
Answer: B

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NO.8 When is the relationship between a data volume and a BCV created?
A. When the BCV is created in the bin file
B. When the BCV is established
C. When the BCV is split
D. When the BCV is varied on
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which type of Symmetrix volume contains information on the dynamic mirror policy decisions, error
logging, event traces, code image storage, and a dedicated lost write area?
A. BCV
B. Data
C. DRV
D. SFS
Answer: D

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NO.10 What does the Interleave Service Policy manage during a read operation?
A. Reads the tracks from M1 and M2 randomly
B. Reads the tracks from M1 and M2 alternatively
C. Reads the tracks only from M1
D. Tracks measurements of I/O on logical volumes and chooses the appropriate mirror
Answer: B

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NO.11 A customer wants to set up an FA port for a 10km distance connection. Which optic mode will meet the
customer's need?
A. Long wave, Fibre Multi Mode port
B. Long wave, Fibre Single Mode port
C. Short wave, Fibre Multi Mode port
D. Short wave, Fibre Single Mode port
Answer: B

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NO.12 What is a major difference in director data flow between the Symmetrix 8000 series and a DMX-2?
A. An 8430 uses loop redundancy
B. An 8530's directors are connected to two data busses
C. Directors in a DMX-2 are connected to top high and bottom low
D. DMX-2 port bypass cards are connected directly to cache
Answer: B

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NO.13 Click the exhibit button.
You are viewing the rear of the DMX1000 card cage. Which card is ECM1?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: B

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NO.14 When looking at the DMX FA Back Adapter, you notice that one of the SFPs is blue. What does this
mean?
A. Long wave, multi mode port
B. Long wave, single mode port
C. Short wave, multi mode port
D. Short wave, single mode port
Answer: B

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NO.15 What is a difference between a Symmetrix 8830 and a DMX-2?
A. An 8830 24-slot card cage is scalable
B. Disks on a DMX-2 are FC-AL
C. DMX-2 uses a cache interconnect multi-drop bus
D. Maximum system bandwidth on an 8830 is 16Gb/s
Answer: B

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NO.16 Click the exhibit button.
You are viewing the rear of a Symmetrix DMX22000/3000 Card Cage. Where will you find ECM1?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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NO.17 On a DMX1000P, how many DAs are required?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.18 A service processor fails to communicate with directors 1 through 8 in the DMX-2 series. Which
component can cause this failure?
A. CCM0
B. ECM0
C. ECM1
D. XCM
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which component of a DMX-2 performs Front End, director-to-director communications?
A. CCM
B. ECM
C. LCC
D. PBC
Answer: A

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NO.20 A customer's AC power fails to a Symmetrix 8430/8530. In this case, which components will the
battery subsystem sustain?
A. Card cage and disks
B. Communication cards and service processors
C. Disk drives and memory
D. Memory cards and service processor
Answer: A

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NO.1 What is the status of CX600 cache during the battery test in release 12?
A. read cache gets disabled
B. write cache gets disabled
C. read and write cache are not disabled
D. both read and write cache gets disabled
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is the ksh syntax to use vi commands for the shell history?
A. set-o vi
B. set-h vi
C. set-hist vi
D. export history=vi
Answer: A

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NO.3 Exhibit: *** MISSING ***
How is the metalun configured in the image?
A. "Lun id" 65 and 75 are concatenated, Component 0 and 1 are striped
B. "Lun id" 65 and 75 are striped, Component 0 and 1 are striped concatenated
C. "Lun id" 2034 and 2035 are concatenated, Component 0 and 1 are striped
D. "Lun id" 2034 and 2035 are striped, Component 0 and 1 are striped concatenated
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which user account is needed to install drivers on UNIX servers?
A. sys
B. root
C. oracle
D. Administrator
Answer: B

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NO.5 DRAG DROP
What is the Power-on Sequence on the CLARiiON CX series?
Answer:

NO.6 Which CLI commands is used to verify the installed software versions?
A. navcli-h 192.168.1.1 ndu-list
B. navcli-h 192.168.1.1 ndu-installed
C. navcli-h 192.168.1.1 ndu-check
D. navcli-h 192.168.1.1 software-list
Answer: A

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NO.7 Select three [3] items that are true about Snap View Clones.
A. Uses CLI Provider NDU
B. Can be mounted lat any time
C. Uses COFW, Copy on First Write
D. Must be exact same size of source LUNs
E. Must use a minimum of one snap cache LUN
F. Can only be created on an array with AccessLongix
Answer: A, D, F

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NO.8 Which 2 mirror drives are the boot disks for SPB on a CLARiiON CX600?
A. 0_0_0
B. 0_0_1
C. 0_0_2
D. 0_0_3
Answer: B.D

NO.9 Which two [2] are valid methods of managing CLARiiON snapshots?
A. navilcli
B. admsnap
C. admcilone
D. admhosts
E. java-jar navicli.jar
Answer: A.B

NO.10 How does the CLARiiON preserves data in write cache during a power failure of a CX600?
A. The CX600 dumps the cache into the PSM
B. The CX600 dumps the cache into the vault area
C. The CX600 flushes the cache into the data disks
D. The CX600 dumps the cache onto the reserved space
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which three [3] characteristics do Veritas Volume manager, ALX LVM, HPUX LVM, and Solstice Disk
Suite have in common?
A. Striping at the host level
B. Provides data protection
C. Places a unique label on each disk
D. Groups disks together in volume groups
E. Creates large volumes out of smaller disks
Answer: A, B, E

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NO.12 Exhibit: *** MISSING ***
What does the "Alignment Offset" function align?
A. Lun on the raidgroup
B. Partition on the stripe boundary of a lun
C. Partition on the stripe size on the raidgroup
D. Partition on the metalun stripe element size
Answer: B

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NO.13 Exhibit: *** MISSING ***
What is the function of the "No install verify" select while binding a lun as shown in the image?
A. It will not verify the alignment offset
B. It will not verify contiguous free space
C. It will not verify if the raidgroup was transitioning
D. It will not do a background verify after the lun has been bound
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which command allows for the extraction of all lines containing EMC case insensitive from the file test
txt?
A. vi test.txt
B. ed test.txt -EMC
C. grep EMC test.txt
D. grep -I emc test.txt
Answer: D

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NO.15 What are the steps to add a disk to a Sun Solaris host online (no reboot of the host)?
A. Drvconfig, disks
B. Drvconfig, format, label
C. Drvconfig, disks, devlinks
D. Vi sd.conf, touch /reconfigure, init 6
Answer: C

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NO.16 Why is a snapview session lost an SP failure?
A. The session was not persistent
B. The host agent was not running
C. The snapshot was not mounted
D. The snapshot was not in a storagegroup
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which component verifies that proper cabling has been done to the Katana?
A. SPS
B. Services Processor
C. LCC Loop ID LEDs
D. Fibre Channel Director
Answer: C

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NO.18 DRAG DROP
Match the failover modes to the software product.
Answer:

NO.19 What is a valid frontend SP ALPA address on CLARiiON FCC4700 series?
A. 0 - 124
B. 0 - 128
C. 0 - 224
D. 0 - 255
Answer: A

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NO.20 What is the minimum amount of needs in a CLARiiON CX400 to have a hostpare?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 15
Answer: C

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Exam Code: E22-192

Exam Name: EMC (Captiva Installation, Configuration, and Management Exam)

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NO.1 A customer is required to send (and not return) InputAccel data to an external system via Web
Services.
Which component is responsible for this exchange of information?
A. Web Services Output
B. Web Services Coordinator
C. Web Services Hosting
D. Web Services Export
Answer: A

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NO.2 Email import module supports POP3, POP3 SSL, and which other email protocol?
A. IMAP4
B. HTTP
C. MIME
D. MAPI
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which component is required to run a report?
A. VBA code
B. Stored procedure
C. Client-Side Scripting
D. IPP code
Answer: B

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NO.4 An end user needs to export a batch from the InputAccel Server using a system that does not have
client modules installed.
Which mechanism can be used to export the batch to a different directory as a zip archived file?
A. IACopy
B. Multi-Directory Watch
C. File System Export
D. Administration Console
Answer: D

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NO.5 A Developer needs to create a database query that will execute after the end user populates a field.
How can this be accomplished?
A. Configure a new log rule for the IndexPlus module to query the database.
B. Configure IndexPlus to make the database call.
C. Code a database query in IPP code's IndexPlus Finish event
D. Code a database query using Client-Side Scripting with IndexPlus
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which module enables end users to perform quality assurance on scanned images and document
assembly?
A. IndexPlus
B. Image Enhancement
C. RescanPlus
D. NuanceOCR
Answer: C

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NO.7 System requirements have been verified and InputAccel is ready to be installed. What is the correct
order of items to be installed?
A. 1. InputAccel Database
InputAccel Server
Administration Console
Dispatcher for InputAccel client modules"
B. 1. InputAccel Database
InputAccel Server
Web Services
Administration Console
InputAccel client modules"
C. 1. InputAccel Server
InputAccel Database
Administration Console
InputAccel client modules"
D. 1. InputAccel Database
InputAccel Server
Administration Console
InputAccel client modules"
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which module is used to automatically identify templates defined in a Dispatcher project?
A. Dispatcher manager
B. Classification Edit
C. Classification
D. Validation
Answer: C

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NO.9 An Administrator reinstalls the InputAccel Server on new hardware after a disastrous hardware failure.
The Administrator uses the original CAF and LIC files from eighteen months ago to activate and license
the new server.
Why will this result in a non-functioning server?
A. The original CAF file contains invalid EnterBy dates
B. The original CAF file cannot be used on different hardware
C. The original LIC file cannot be used on different hardware
D. The original LIC file contains invalid EnterBy dates
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which steps are required to upgrade an InputAccel process to use replaced modules when migrating
from InputAccel 5.3 to 6.x?
No additional steps are required to migrate processes
A. 1. Open IPP in Process Developer
Recompile
Reinstall"
B. 1. Open IPP in Process Developer
Include new MDF files
Modify to include new module names
Recompile
Reinstall"
C. 1. Open IPP in Process Developer
Add prepare routines for all new modules
Set manual retriggering
Include new MDF files
Modify IPP to include new module names
Recompile
Reinstall"
Answer: B

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NO.11 A Developer modifies an IPP that was generated by CaptureFlow Designer.
Where can the IPP be maintained going forward?
A. CaptureFlow Designer
B. Dispatcher Manager
C. Process Developer
D. Free Form Designer
Answer: C

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NO.12 An Administrator receives new system requirements where the barcode contains multiple lines of data.
Which filter is used to read the barcode.?
A. Extended Bar Code Detection
B. Patch Code Detection
C. Bar Code Detection
D. Postal Bar Code Detection
Answer: A

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NO.13 What is one virtualization product that is compatible with InputAccel?
A. VirtualBox
B. XenServer
C. Hyper-V
D. OracleVM
Answer: B

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NO.14 What is required to synchronize the InputAccel Server to the InputAccel Database when moving the
database onto a new machine?
A. Reinstall ODBC Component
B. Reinstall InputAccel Server Component
C. Run Data Access Layer registration utility
D. Restart InputAccel service
Answer: C

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NO.15 In efforts to tighten InputAccel security, the Administrator is creating a new Supervisor role. The
Supervisor role should have access to the Administration Console and should be able to run client
modules.
What needs to be applied to the new Supervisor role?
A. Role members
B. Windows users and groups
C. Permissions
D. Access Control Lists (ACL)
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 212-77

Exam Name: EC-COUNCIL (Linux Security )

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NO.1 Which of the following statements applies to the IP address 192.168.0.1?
A. It is reserved.
B. It cannot be assigned to a host that accesses the Internet.
C. It is designated for multicast transmission.
D. It can be freely assigned to a host on a private network
Answer: A

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NO.2 How should you engage users in helping to secure your computer's passwords?
A. Educate them about the importance of security, the means of choosing good
passwords, and the ways crackers can obtain passwords.
B. Instruct your users to e-mail copies of their passwords to themselves on other systems
so that they're readily available in case of an emergency.
C. Enforce password change rules but don't tell users how crackers obtain passwords
since you could be educating a future cracker.
D. Give some of your users copies of the encrypted database file as backup in case a
cracker breaks in and corrupts the original.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following are ways to disable dynamic routing?
A. The linuxconf Gated Daemon screen
B. The linuxconf Routed Daemon screen
C. echo "0" > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/dynamic_routing
D. Editing /etc/sysconfig/network-scripts
Answer: B

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NO.4 You are told by a co-worker that information pertaining to the syslog command can
be found in man page 3. How would you view this information?
A. man syslog 3
B. man 3 syslog
C. man syslog -3
D. man -3 syslog
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following are risks of SUID and SGID programs? (Choose two)
A. Bugs in the programs may cause more damage than they would in ordinary programs.
B. The program files are large and thus may cause a disk to run out of space.
C. Because the programs require password entry, running them over an insecure network
link runs the risk of password interception.
D. Users may be able to abuse a program's features, thus doing more damage than would
otherwise be possible.
Answer: B, D

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NO.6 Assume that you have just logged on as a regular user. Which of the following
commands allows you to edit the file with user passwords associated with the
Shadow Password Suite?
A. vi /etc/shadow
B. sudo -c "vi /etc/shadow"
C. su -c "vi /etc/shadow"
D. visu vi /etc/passwd
Answer: B

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NO.7 Under the bash shell which is the most appropriate place to set environment
variables that apply to all users?
A. /etc/skel
B. rc.sysinit
C. /etc/profile
D. /etc/bashrc
E. rc.local
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following is true of Linux passwords?
A. They are changed with the password utility.
B. They must be changed once a month.
C. They may consist only of lowercase letters and numbers.
D. They may be changed by the user who owns an account or by root.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following measures is the most effective way to prevent attacks
through various network services?
A. Disable a service in the appropriate /etc/xinetd.d configuration file.
B. Use a firewall to drop all requests to unneeded services.
C. Block service requests with the appropriate commands in /etc/hosts.deny.
D. Uninstall unneeded network services.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following is not a Linux DHCP client?
A. dhcpcd
B. pump
C. dhcpd
D. dhclient
Answer: A

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