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Exam Code: 642-887
Exam Name: Cisco (Implementing Cisco Service Provider Next-Generation Core Network Services)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 78 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-26

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NO.1 When configuring LLQ (strict priority queue) on a traffic class using the Cisco IOS XR priority command
on a Cisco ASR9K router, which additional QoS command is required for this traffic class?
A. shape
B. police
C. random-detect
D. bandwidth
Answer: B

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NO.2 When implementing MPLS DS-TE on Cisco IOS XR routers, all aggregate Cisco MPLS TE traffic is
mapped to which class type by default?
A. class-type 0 (bandwidth global pool)
B. class-type 1 (bandwidth subpool)
C. class-type 2 (bandwidth priority)
D. class type class-default (bandwidth best-effort)
Answer: A

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NO.3 On the Cisco ASR9K router, when using the bandwidth command to specify the minimum guaranteed
bandwidth to be allocated for a specific class of traffic, what will be used as the queuing algorithm?
A. custom queuing
B. CBWFQ
C. WFQ
D. FIFO
E. priority queuing
Answer: B

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NO.4 On a Cisco IOS XR router, which mechanism protects the router resources by filtering and policing the
packets flows that are destined to the router that is based on defined flow-type rates?
A. LLQ
B. LPTS
C. Committed Access Rate
D. Control Plane Policing
E. Management Plane Protection
F. NetFlow
G. ACL
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which field in the MPLS shim header is used to support different QoS markings?
A. IP precedence
B. DSCP
C. EXP
D. ToS
E. S
F. Label
Answer: C

Cisco answers real questions   642-887   642-887

NO.6 On the Cisco IOS XR, which MQC configuration is different than on the Cisco IOS and IOS XE?
A. On the Cisco IOS XR, WRED can only be applied in the output direction.
B. On the Cisco IOS XR, marking can only be applied in the input direction.
C. On the Cisco IOS XR, LLQ can be applied in the input or output direction.
D. On the Cisco IOS XR, LLQ can use up to four priority queues: level 1, level 2, level 3, and level 4.
Answer: C

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NO.7 DS-TE implementations on Cisco routers support which bandwidth pool(s) and class type(s)? (Choose
two.)
A. global pool only
B. subpool only
C. global pool and subpool
D. class-type 0 only
E. class-type 1 only
F. class-type 0 and class-type 1
Answer: C,F

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NO.8 On Cisco routers, how is hierarchical QoS implemented?
A. Within the parent policy, reference another child policy using the policy-map command.
B. Within the child policy, reference another parent policy using the policy-map command.
C. Use the policy-map command within a service-policy to implement nested policy-maps.
D. Within the parent policy-map, reference another child policy-map using the service-policy command.
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is the correct formula for determining the CIR.?
A. CIR = Bc/Tc
B. CIR = Bc x Tc
C. CIR = Tc/Bc
D. CIR = Bc + Be
E. CIR = Tc/(Bc+Be)
F. CIR = (Bc+Be)/Tc
Answer: A

Cisco   642-887   642-887

NO.10 Which three conditions can occur when metering traffic using a dual token bucket traffic policing QoS
mechanism on Cisco routers? (Choose three.)
A. conform
B. pass
C. violate
D. exceed
E. burst
F. matched
Answer: A,C,D

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Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 Which feature in Cisco WebEx Meeting Center allows you to collaboratively brainstorm ideas
and
take notes?
A. integrated audio and VoIP
B. whiteboard
C. Network-Based Recording
D. WebEx One-Click
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which two of these factors should be considered when determining the size of a conference
system? (Choose two.)
A. future growth
B. service levels
C. location of participants
D. CapEx
E. node capacity
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 How do you share data from Cisco TelePresence WebEx OneTouch?
A. The host must pass the ball.
B. The user must connect to the VGA cable to become the active presenter.
C. Only the host can share data.
D. TelePresence is an audio-only platform and data cannot be shared.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which three host capabilities are available on WebEx for iPad? (Choose three.)
A. schedule, start, or cancel a meeting
B. invite attendees
C. pass presenter control
D. stream media from a PC
E. chat privately with attendees
F. run WebEx in the background
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 The current WebEx audio solution requires all audio to flow through the PSTN. How does this
differ from cloud-connected audio?
A. Customers connect via a VPN.
B. Customers connect with Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
C. Customers connect through a direct IP connection.
D. Customers connect via a media gateway.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which statement is true about screenshot captures in Enterprise IM?
A. Screenshot captures are not supported in group, third-party, or web IM sessions.
B. Screen captures and file transfers can be done at any time throughout the web IM session.
C. Screen captures need to be done by a third party.
D. Only administration has the rights to capture screenshots.
Answer: A

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NO.7 What are trusted domains external to WebEx Connect?
A. whitelist domains
B. CSV files
C. blacklist domains
D. XMPP domains
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which statement is true about Cisco Unified MeetingPlace personal conferences?
A. There are no recordings.
B. Only a web participant list is shown.
C. Participants are able to talk without the host present.
D. The audio session and web session will display on the participants list on the meeting room
interface.
Answer: A

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NO.9 You are late for a meeting and you missed the first half of the conversation. Which feature
allows
you to never miss the contents of a meeting?
A. Cisco ActivePresence
B. Network-Based Recording
C. hands-on labs
D. breakout sessions
Answer: B

Cisco questions   648-232   648-232   648-232   648-232

NO.10 Which issue should be escalated to Cisco Technical Support?
A. forgetting your login password
B. installing your WebEx client
C. troubleshooting UI configuration issues
D. new account request
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 642-035
Exam Name: Cisco (Troubleshooting Cisco Data Center Unified Computing)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 81 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-26

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NO.1 At any given time, each server can be associated with how many service profiles?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 10
E. unlimited
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer is troubleshooting degraded DIMM errors on a Cisco UCS blade server and would
like
to reset the BMC. What is the correct command sequence to reset the BMC?
A. UCS1-A# server x/y
UCS1-A /chassis/server # scope bmc
UCS1-A /chassis/server/bmc # reset
UCS1-A /chassis/server/bmc* # commit-buffer
B. UCS1-A# server scope
UCS1-A /chassis/server # scope bmc
UCS1-A /chassis/server/bmc # reset
UCS1-A /chassis/server/bmc* # commit-buffer
C. UCS1-A# scope server x/y
UCS1-A /chassis/server # scope bmc
UCS1-A /chassis/server/bmc # reset
UCS1-A /chassis/server/bmc* # commit-buffer
D. UCS1-A# scope server x/y
UCS1-A /chassis/server # scope bmc
UCS1-A /chassis/server/bmc* # commit-buffer
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer would like to create an Ethernet traffic monitoring session on a Cisco UCS server to
troubleshoot network connectivity. The customer has entered the following commands via CLI:
UCS-A# scope eth-traffic-mon
UCS-A /eth-traffic-mon # scope fabric a
UCS-A /eth-traffic-mon/fabric # create eth-mon-session EthMonitor33
UCS-A /eth-traffic-mon/fabric/eth-mon-session* # create dest-interface 2 12
UCS-A /eth-traffic-mon/fabric/eth-mon-session/dest-interface* # set speed 20gbps
UCS-A /eth-traffic-mon/fabric/eth-mon-session/dest-interface* # commit-buffer
UCS-A /eth-traffic-mon/fabric/eth-mon-session/dest-interface #
Which outcome will this command sequence produce?
A. It will create an Ethernet traffic monitoring session to copy and forward traffic to the destination
port at slot 2, port 12, will set the admin speed to 20 Gb/s, and will commit the transaction.
B. It will create an Ethernet traffic monitoring session to copy and forward traffic to the destination
port at slot 2, port 33, will set the admin speed to 20 Gb/s, and will commit the transaction.
C. It will create an Ethernet traffic monitoring session to copy and forward traffic to the destination
port at slot 33, port 12, will set the admin speed to 20 Gb/s, and will commit the transaction.
D. It will create an Ethernet traffic monitoring session to copy and forward traffic to the destination
port at slot 2, port 12, will set the admin speed to 10 Gb/s, and will commit the transaction.
Answer: A

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NO.4 A local storage installation of ESX on a Cisco UCS C-Series server has failed due to local storage
issues. What is the cause of the problem?
A. LSI drivers are not bundled with ESX.
B. The hard drive has a 1-TB partition size.
C. The server only has an onboard controller, while ESX requires an LSI RAID controller card.
D. ESX is not supported on Cisco UCS C-series servers.
Answer: C

Cisco   642-035   642-035   642-035

NO.5 Which four tasks can be performed via Cisco IMC remote access to a Cisco UCS system?
(Choose four.)
A. power cycle the server
B. deploy an operating system
C. toggle the locator LED
D. configure the boot order
E. view properties and sensors
F. configure the hypervisor
G. enable Cisco UCS Manager
Answer: A,C,D,E

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NO.6 What is the maximum number of boot targets for an FCoE vHBA on a Cisco UCS C-Series
server?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D

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Total Q&A: 86 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-26

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NO.1 Which innovation in the Cisco NX-OS Software new Layer 2 data plane by encapsulating the
frames entering the device with a header that consists of a mutable source and destination
address?
A. LISP
B. MPLS
C. RSTP
D. OTV
E. Routing
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which item uses TCP as a block I/O transport?
A. CIFS
B. AoE
C. NFSv4
D. iSCSI
E. FCoE
F. HyperTransport
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is one example of typical business requirements that are driving the design of installed
base
data centers?
A. IT reorganization
B. physical space
C. greater collaboration
D. visualization
Answer: B

Cisco   642-996   642-996

NO.4 Your customer is designing a new data center with FCoE. Which three appropriate platforms
are
capable of meeting this requirement? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Catalyst 6509 switch with FCoE blade
B. Cisco Fabric Extender with FCoE support
C. Cisco Nexus 7010 switch with FCoE license
D. Cisco 2948 switch with FCoE license
E. Cisco Nexus 5596 switch with FCoE license
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.5 Which of the following is true with respect to Cisco Adapter FEX?
A. Cisco Adapter FEX is only supported on vSwitch.
B. Cisco Adapter FEX does not provide architectural flexibility.
C. Cisco Adapter FEX increases the number of cables in the data center.
D. Cisco Adapter FEX enables the server adapter to be logically partitioned into multiple vNICs.
Answer: A

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NO.1 Where in the value chain do collaboration architecture solutions bring the highest value to
businesses?
A.In human resources management processes
B.Infrastructure
C.In logistics processes
D.Within core business processes
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which statement best describes the Cisco collaboration architecture?
A.It is a collaboration framework designed to integrate the existing collaboration functionalities of a
customer with Cisco network infrastructure.
B.It is a collaboration framework designed to support the collaboration needs of a typical large
enterprise.
C.It is a flexible collaboration framework designed to support any customer and any user
collaboration
needs.
D.It is a flexible network framework designed to enable integration with the collaboration
requirements of
a customer.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which three of these are market trends that drive the need for an improved, more efficient
collaboration
experience? (Choose three.)
A.automated order processing
B.conducting business globally across several or all time zones
C.effective HRM system
D.work anywhere, anytime, any device
E.inventory management
F.cloud services and social media
Answer: B,D,F

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Exam Code: 642-385
Exam Name: Cisco (Cisco Express Foundation for Field Engineers)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 82 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-26

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NO.1 Which two statements about the capabilities of the Cisco AnyConnect 3.0 Secure Mobility
Client for Windows are true? (Choose two.)
A. It supports always-on connectivity by automatically establishing a VPN connection as needed. If
multiple VPN gateways exist, load sharing occurs in a round-robin fashion.
B. It supports session persistence after hibernation or standby.
C. Trusted Network Detection allows the connection to be established without any user intervention
(authentication), if the client is located inside the office.
D. It is exclusively configured by central policies; no local configuration is possible.
E. The order of policy enforcement is as follows: dynamic access policy, user attributes, tunnel group,
group policy attributes.
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 Which two statements about CVD and SBA are true? (Choose two.)
A. SBA guides are available for enterprise deployments only.
B. CVD includes everything from rough designs to tested versions of software code.
C. Gold partners have access to a demo lab for each validated design.
D. CVD is technology-oriented, while SBA is market- and solution-oriented.
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 Which two examples best describe the challenges that customers face in networks of today?
(Choose two.)
A. How can we effectively support extensive collaboration requirements, including video?
B. How do we control energy consumption of devices that are owned by employees?
C. Which type of firewall should we deploy?
D. Do we need to invest in the BYOD solution?
E. How can we disable users from using their own devices?
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 The Cisco SecureX Architecture is built on which three foundational principles? (Choose three.)
A. context-aware policy
B. virtual office management
C. network management
D. content access control
E. context-aware security enforcement
F. network and global intelligence
Answer: A,E,F

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NO.5 Which two of the following statements correctly describe architecture and design? (Choose
two.)
A. The architecture shows building blocks and abstract capabilities of a system and the relationships
between the individual components.
B. The design shows concrete products, expected performance, and scalability options of a solution.
C. The design is the basis for creating the architecture.
D. The architecture includes a description of the best possible solution.
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 Which three of the following are major trends that fuel the demand for routing and switching?
(Choose three.)
A. Mobility
B. Video
C. Bandwidth optimization
D. Cloud
E. IT standardization
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.7 Which four features are provided by the Cisco AnyConnect client for Windows? (Choose four.)
A. SSL VPN
B. IPsec VPN
C. host intrusion prevention system
D. presence
E. MACsec encryption
F. antivirus
G. personal firewall
H. Cisco ScanSafe integration
Answer: A,B,E,H

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NO.8 Which two statements are true about CVD and SBA? (Choose two.)?
A. The SBA toolset includes Partner Enablement Assets and EcoPartner Guides.
B. SBA guides are available for enterprise deployments only.
C. CVDs are end-to-end designs which are well-tested and fully documented.
D. Gold partners have access to a demo lab for each validated design.
Answer: A,C

Cisco   642-385   642-385   642-385

NO.9 Which two questions should you ask when assessing an organization's security needs?
(Choose two.)
A. Are you exploring new cloud business models?
B. Are you enforcing the same security policies consistently across your organization?
C. Are you using the latest hardware and software versions for your security devices?
D. Are you using single-vendor security equipment?
E. What are the operating hours of your security response team?
Answer: A,B

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NO.10 Which three of the following are successful examples of strategic IT investments improving
operational agility? (Choose three.)
A. A company offers mobile email to its employees, who can then react faster to requests.
B. A company implements collaboration solutions, which simplified information exchange.
C. A company changes its security strategy from "lock down" to "secure access from anywhere", so
that users are "always-on" and can easily work remotely.
D. A company implements EnergyWise solutions, which drastically reduce energy costs.?
E. A company provides support for a BYOD solution, which increases the investment and requires
network upgrades, but provides limited improvements compared to a well-known remote access
solution.
Answer: A,B,C

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Exam Code: 700-505
Exam Name: Cisco (SMB Specialization for Account Managers)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 51 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-26

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NO.1 Your customer is considering migrating to a Cisco Borderless Routing solution from their
current vendor.
Which best practice can close the sale?
A. Show the customer a Cisco television commercial
B. Go through a check list and compare the performance capabilities between Cisco and the other
vendor.
C. Mention that promotions and incentives are available through Cisco.
D. Demonstrate how the Cisco solution saves money by consolidating devices and integrating
management.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which statement about the Cisco Meraki cloud architecture is true?
A. Devices are configured in the cloud on first use and then managed locally after they are set up.
B. All Meraki devices are managed locally by default.
C. Management data flows to the Cisco Meraki cloud and user traffic flows directly to its destination
on the LAN or across the WAN.
D. All data flows through the Cisco Meraki cloud.
Answer: C

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Reference:http://meraki.cisco.com/products/architecture/

NO.3 Which option is an online conferencing solution that allows participants to see; hear and share
content and applications in real time?
A. Cisco Unity
B. Cisco ISR with Conferencing service module
C. Borderless Networks
D. WebEx meetings
Answer: D

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Reference:http://www.webex.com/how-to/

NO.4 Which two customer benefits can be realized with Cisco Unified Data Center? (Choose two.)
A. 50 percent faster disaster recovery
B. 50 percent less time in application deployment
C. 15 percent faster in application performance, 40 percent less in infrastructure costs
D. 60 percent less cost for cooling and power
Answer: A,D

Cisco   700-505   700-505
Reference:http://www.cisco.com/web/GR/connect2013 /pdfs/ 024_cisco_eugenioszervoudis.
pdf(slide 10)

NO.5 Which two product portfolios help make up the Cisco Office in a Box solution? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 3048
B. Cisco UCS C-Series Servers
C. Cisco UCS E-Series Servers
D. Cisco ISR 2900 and 3900 Series
E. Cisco Nexus 5000
F. Cisco ISR 1900, 2900 and 3900 Series
Answer: C,D

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Reference:http://www.cisco.com/en/US/prod/collateral/ps10265 /ps12629/white_paper_c1171534
7.html(Second para)

NO.6 Which two Cisco ISR series are needed to support a Cisco Services-Ready Engine to deploy
services on demand? (Choose two.)
A. 3900 Series
B. 2900 Series
C. 2800 Series
D. 800 Series
Answer: A,B

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Reference:http://www.cisco.com/en/US/prod/collateral/modules/ps10598 /data_sheet_c78553913.
html

NO.7 Which three business challenges do customers face that are addressed by Cisco architectural
solutions? (Choose three.)
A. Guarantee reliability.
B. Improve workforce productivity.
C. Hire more staff.
D. Increase cash flow.
E. Deliver first-class offerings and experience to their clients.
F. Reduce total cost of ownership while maximizing the contribution of IT.
Answer: A,E,F

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NO.8 Which three options are considered common features of Cisco WebEx solutions? (Choose
three.)
A. Document, application, and desktop sharing
B. Available in 226 languages
C. Scheduled and ad-hoc meetings
D. Consistent, cross-platform experience
E. Third-party voice included
F. Per-user attention status indicator
Answer: A,D,F

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Exam Code: 642-681
Exam Name: Cisco (Advanced Wireless LAN for System Engineers Exam)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 93 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-15

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NO.1 The CiscoWorks Wireless LAN Solution Engine uses which protocol for radio management?
A. CCKM
B. LWAPP
C. SNMP
D. WLCCP
Answer: D

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NO.2 How is a bridge group name used in a wireless mesh deployment?
A. It is used to retrieve the secret shared key.
B. It logically groups access points to avoid interference from neighboring mesh networks.
C. It is used as a password in communication preceding LWAPP.
D. It is used to join the outdoor mesh network with the controller mobility group.
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the maximum number of wireless devices that a Cisco 2700 Series Wireless Location
Appliance can track, operating with Cisco WCS version 4.0?
A. 500
B. 1000
C. 1500
D. 2500
Answer: D

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NO.4 The Newton manufacturing company has three facilities that are located in Columbia, South Carolina.
The corporate office is located in an 11-story building downtown. The R&D facility is located on the north
side of the city approximately 4 miles (6.4 km) from the corporate office in a five-story building. The
manufacturing facility is located approximately 6 miles (9.6 km) to the northwest of the corporate office.
Line of sight exists from the downtown office to all facilities. Users at the manufacturing plant require
network connectivity for file sharing and e-mail, while the users at the R&D facility require high-speed
Internet access with the ability to send large CAD drawings to the corporate office and large machine
control files to the manufacturing facility. Presently, the manufacturing facility is connected to the
corporate office by a 64-kbps leased line, and the R&D facility is connected to both the corporate office
and the manufacturing facility by a dedicated T1 line. The company plans to add a second line of
development at the R&D facility within the next 60 days. The current T1 lines are at a constant 70-percent
utilization rate. The current projected lead time for installation of additional lines is 90 days if the current
cable plant will support it.
A wireless bridging solution would provide which three benefits to the customer? (Choose three.)
A. rapid deployment
B. immunity to weather
C. increased bandwidth
D. guaranteed bandwidth
E. increased security
F. lower total cost of ownership
Answer: ACF

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NO.5 What is the maximum number of access points that a high-end Cisco WCS server can support?
A. 500
B. 1000
C. 1500
D. 3000
Answer: D

Cisco   642-681 certification   642-681 answers real questions   642-681 questions

NO.6 Which one of the following integrated services routers supports the integrated 2.4-GHz b/g access
points?
A. Cisco 1812
B. Cisco 1811
C. Cisco 1841
D. Cisco 1803
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which two statements correctly describe the Cisco Catalyst WiSM? (Choose two.)
A. It supports up to 100 access points per module.
B. It supports up to 200 access points per module.
C. It supports up to 300 access points per module.
D. It has a maximum of four modules per chassis.
E. It has a maximum of five modules per chassis.
F. It has a maximum of six modules per chassis.
Answer: CE

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NO.8 How many mesh access points can be placed on a map with efficient link rendering in Cisco WCS?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200
Answer: B

Cisco test questions   642-681   642-681 study guide   642-681

NO.9 Which two key features are unique to the controller-based feature set? (Choose two.)
A. fast secure roaming
B. rogue access point detection
C. access point participation in RF management
D. access point registration via digital certificate
E. dynamic RF control without a dedicated management platform
Answer: DE

Cisco   642-681 exam simulations   642-681

NO.10 A customer in the United States requires connectivity between two campus locations that are located
6 miles (9.65 km) apart. The customer also needs a minimum data rate of 54 Mbps in an area that is
known to have 2.4-GHz interference. Which two devices will provide a bridge link and avoid the
interference? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Aironet 1100 Series Access Point
B. Cisco Aironet 1210 Series Access Point
C. Cisco Aironet 1242AG Series Access Point
D. Cisco Aironet 1300 Series Outdoor Access Point/Bridge
E. Cisco Aironet 1400 Series Wireless Bridge
Answer: CE

Cisco   642-681   642-681 study guide

NO.11 How many prior configuration versions can be archived on the CiscoWorks WLSE?
A. two
B. four
C. six
D. eight
Answer: B

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NO.12 The Cisco 3200 Series Mobile Access Router has integrated wireless support for which two
FCC-approved frequency ranges? (Choose two.)
A. 900 to 928 MHz
B. 2.400 to 2.4835 GHz
C. 4.940 to 4.990 GHz
D. 5.150 to 5.250 GHz
E. 5.725 to 5.825 GHz
Answer: BC

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NO.13 The Newton Manufacturing Company has three facilities that are located in Columbia, South Carolina.
The corporate office is located in an 11-story building downtown. The R&D facility is located on the north
side of the city approximately 4 miles (6.4 km) from the corporate office in a five-story building. The
manufacturing facility is located approximately 6 miles (9.6 km) to the northwest of the corporate office.
Line of sight exists from the downtown office to all facilities. Users at the manufacturing plant require
network connectivity for file-sharing and e-mail, while the users at the R&D facility require high-speed
Internet access with the ability to send large CAD drawings to the corporate office and large machine
control files to the manufacturing facility. Presently, the manufacturing facility is connected to the
corporate office by a 64-kbps leased line, and the R&D facility is connected to both the corporate office
and the manufacturing facility by a dedicated T1 line. The company plans to add a second line of
development at the R&D facility within the next 60 days. The current T1 lines are at a constant 70 percent
utilization rate. The current projected lead time for installation of additional lines is 90 days if the cable
plant will support it.
Which deployment option would provide the most benefit to the customer?
A. point-to-point link from corporate to manufacturing, and a point-to-point link from corporate to R&D
B. point-to-multipoint solution with the root bridge located at the manufacturing facility
C. point-to-multipoint solution with the root bridge located at the corporate office
D. point-to-multipoint solution with the root bridge located at the R&D facility
Answer: D

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NO.14 OFDM provides which improvement over DSSS in the 2.4-GHz range?
A. greater resistance to multipath interference
B. more nonoverlapping channels
C. more bandwidth per channel
D. full-duplex communication
Answer: A

Cisco demo   642-681   642-681   642-681

NO.15 What is the Cisco-recommended limit of standalone access points to be managed by a CiscoWorks
WLSE 1130-19 with RF management enabled?
A. 1000
B. 1500
C. 1800
D. 2500
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which three devices are required to implement a Cisco 2700 Series Wireless Location Appliance?
(Choose three.)
A. wireless controller
B. wireless domain server
C. Cisco Wireless Control System
D. controller-based access point
E. standalone access point
F. CiscoWorks Wireless LAN Solution Engine
Answer: ACD

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NO.17 In a mesh network, what is the recommended hop-count limit of a mesh access point from its
associated root access point?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which three wireless intrusion-prevention signatures are part of the standard signature set provided by
the Wireless LAN Controller? (Choose three.)
A. ad-hoc network detection
B. rogue network detection
C. rogue access point detection
D. deauth flood detection
E. fake access point detection
F. NetStumbler detection
Answer: DEF

Cisco   642-681   642-681 test answers   642-681 pdf

NO.19 A customer has a small remote site with 10 standalone access points. In which two of the following
scenarios would it be appropriate to implement CiscoWorks WLSE Express? (Choose two.)
A. EAP-Cisco Wireless (Cisco LEAP) security is required and an external AAA server is available.
B. EAP-Cisco Wireless (Cisco LEAP) security is required and no external AAA server is available.
C. EAP-FAST security is required and no external AAA server is available.
D. EAP-FAST security is required and an AAA server is available.
E. MAC authentication is required and no external AAA server is available.
F. MAC authentication is required and an external AAA server is available.
Answer: BC

Cisco   642-681 test   642-681

NO.20 Which statement describes how RSSI information is processed in a WLAN with a location appliance
using controller-based products?
A. Access points aggregate RSSI information.
B. WLAN controllers compute RSSI information.
C. The location appliance collects the RSSI information.
D. The Cisco WCS collects and aggregates the RSSI information and forwards it to the location
appliance.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 642-902
Exam Name: Cisco (Implementing cisco ip routing)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 367 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-15

642-902 (Implementing cisco ip routing) Free Demo Download: http://www.it-tests.com/642-902.html

NO.1 What are the two reasons for the appearance of 0.0.0.0 as the next hop for a network in the show ip bgp
command output? (Choose two.)
A. The network was originated via redistribution of an interior gateway protocol into BGP.
B. The network was defined by a static route.
C. The network was originated via a network or aggregate command.
D. The network was learned via EBGP.
E. The network was learned via IBGP.
Answer: AC

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NO.2 Refer to the partial configurations in the exhibit. What address is utilized for DR and BDR identification
on Router1?
A. the serial 1/1 address
B. the serial 2/0 address
C. a randomly generated internal address
D. the configured router-id address
Answer: D

Cisco   642-902 exam   642-902

NO.3 Refer to the exhibit.
Router RTA is the hub router for routers RTB and RTC. The Frame Relay network is configured with
EIGRP, and the entire network is in autonomous system 1. However, router RTB and RTC are not
receiving each other's routes. What is the solution?
A. Configure the auto-summary command under router eigrp 1 on router RTA.
B. Issue the no ip split-horizon command on router RTA.
C. Configure subinterfaces on the spoke routers and assign different IP address subnets for each
subinterface.
D. Check and change the access lists on router RTA.
E. Issue the no ip split-horizon eigrp 1 command on router RTA.
F. Configure a distribute-list on router RTA that allows it to advertise all routes to the spoke routers.
Answer: E

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NO.4 During BGP configuration on a router that has peered with other BGP speakers, the BGP command
aggregate-address 172.32.0.0 255.255.252.0 is issued. However, the peers do not receive this aggregate
network in BGP advertisements. Also, the router does not have this aggregate network in its BGP table.
Which option indicates a possible reason this command did not cause the router to advertise the
aggregate network to its peers?
A. Interface NULL 0 is likely shutdown.
B. The BGP command no synchronization is missing.
C. The BGP command no auto-summary is missing.
D. Subnets of 172.32.0.0/22 do not exist in the BGP table.
E. The IGP running on this router does not have network 172.32.0.0/22 installed.
F. The next hop IP address must be a loopback address.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Refer to the output.
What IOS command produces this output? .
A. show ip ospf
B. show ip ospf interface
C. show ipv6 ospf interface
D. show ipv6 ospf
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is the difference between the IPv6 addresses ::/0 and ::/128?
A. ::/0 is the unspecified address, and ::/128 is the multicast address.
B. ::/0 is the unicast address, and ::/128 is the anycast address.
C. ::/0 is the unicast address, and ::/128 is the multicast address.
D. ::/0 is the anycast address, and ::/128 is the multicast address.
E. ::/0 is the default route, and ::/128 is the unspecified address.
F. ::/0 is the anycast address, and ::/128 is the default address.
Answer: E

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NO.7 How is authentication handled with OSPFv3?
A. OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by SHA-1 authentication.
B. OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by MD5 authentication.
C. OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by IPv6 IPsec.
D. OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by IPv4 IPsec.
Answer: C

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NO.8 What two situations could require the use of multiple routing protocols? (Choose two)
A. when using UNIX host-based routers
B. when smaller broadcast domains are desired
C. because having multiple routing protocols confuses hackers
D. when migrating from an older Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP) to a new IGP
E. when all equipment is manufactured by Cisco
F. when there are multiple paths to destination networks
Answer: AD

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NO.9 Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. All six routes will be installed in the routing table.
B. Two routes will be installed in the routing table.
C. Four routes will be installed in the routing table.
D. All the routes were redistributed into BGP from an IGP.
E. All the routes were originated by BGP with the network command.
Answer: CD

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NO.10 A router has two paths to reach another network in a different autonomous system. Neither route was
generated by the local router and both routes have the same default weight and local preference values.
Which statement is true about how BGP would select the best path?
A. If the command bgp always-compare-med has been given, then the router will prefer the route with the
highest MED.
B. The router will prefer the route with the lower MED.
C. The router will prefer the shortest autonomous system path.
D. To influence one route to be preferred, its default local preference value will be changed via the use of
the command bgp default local-preference 50.
Answer: C

Cisco   642-902 original questions   642-902

NO.11 Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements are true about the partial configuration that is provided. (Choose two.)
A. All the configured neighbors are in autonomous system 100.
B. The peer group shortens the IBGP configuration.
C. The peer group shortens the EBGP configuration.
D. Only the outgoing filters are applied to BGP updates.
E. Three AS-path filters are applied to each BGP neighbor.
Answer: AB

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NO.12 What are two rules for compacting IPv6 addresses? (Choose two.)
A. The maximum number of times a double colon can replace a 16-bit segment that consists of all zeroes
is two.
B. The leading zeroes in any 16-bit segment do not have to be written.
C. Every 16-bit segment that consists of all zeroes can be represented with a single colon.
D. The trailing zeroes in any 16-bit segment do not have to be written.
E. Any single, continuous string of one or more 16-bit segments that consists of all zeroes can be
represented with a double colon.
F. Two zeroes in the middle of any 16-bit segment do not have to be written.
Answer: BE

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NO.13 Using the rules for IPv6 addressing, how can the address
2031:0000:240F:0000:0000:09C0:123A:121B be rewritten?
A. 2031:0:240F::09C0:123A:121B
B. 2031::240F::09C0:123A:121B
C. 2031::240F:9C0::123A:121B
D. 2031::240F:::09C0:123A:121B
Answer: A

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NO.14 Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the information in the exhibit, which two statements are true?
(Choose two.)
A. The output was generated by entering the show ip bgp command on the ISP router.
B. The output was generated by entering the show ip bgp command on the SanJose1 router.
C. The serial 0/0/1 interface on the ISP router has been configured with the set metric 50 command.
D. The serial 0/0/1 interface on the ISP router has been configured with the set metric 75 command.
E. When traffic is sent from the ISP to autonomous system 64512, the traffic will be forwarded to
SanJose1 because of the lower MED value of SanJose1.
F. When traffic is sent from the ISP to autonomous system 64512, the traffic will be forwarded to
SanJose2 because of the higher MED value of SanJose2.
Answer: AE

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NO.15 Refer to the exhibit. Router RT-1 and router RT-2 both advertise network 131.25.0.0/16 to router RT-3
via internal BGP. What is the reason that router RT-3 chose router RT-1 as its best path to network
131.25.0.0/16.
A. It advertises the best AS-path.
B. It advertises the best origin code.
C. It advertises the best MED.
D. It advertises the best local preference.
E. It has a better router ID.
F. It advertises a lower autonomous system.
Answer: E

Cisco   642-902   642-902 questions

NO.16 Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement is true?
A. Router RAR1 will accept only route 10.10.0.0/19 from its BGP neighbor.
B. Router RAR1 will send only route 10.10.0.0/19 to its BGP neighbor.
C. Only traffic with a destination from 10.10.0.0/19 will be permitted.
D. Only traffic going to 10.10.0.0/19 will be permitted.
Answer: A

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NO.17 Into which two types of areas would an area border router (ABR) inject a default route.? (Choose two.)
A. the autonomous system of a different interior gateway protocol (IGP)
B. area 0
C. totally stubby
D. NSSA
E. stub
F. the autonomous system of an exterior gateway protocol (EGP)
Answer: CE

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NO.18 Refer to the exhibit.
On the basis of the configuration that is provided, how would the BGP updates that come from router R1
be replicated inside autonomous system 65200?
A. All BGP updates that are received on router R2 will be sent to routers R3 and R4. Routers R3 and R4
will then forward those BGP updates to router R5.
B. All BGP updates that are received on router R2 will not be sent to routers R3 and R4.
C. All BGP updates that are received on router R2 will be sent directly to router R5.
D. None of the BGP updates that are received on router R2 will ever be received by router R5.
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which three restrictions apply to OSPF stub areas? (Choose three.)
A. No virtual links are allowed.
B. The area cannot be a backbone area.
C. Redistribution is not allowed unless the packet is changed to a type 7 packet.
D. The area has no more than 10 routers.
E. No autonomous system border routers are allowed.
F. Interarea routes are suppressed.
Answer: ABE

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NO.20 Refer to the exhibit. Router RT-1 chooses one path to network 198.133.219.0/24. Indicate the reason
Router RT-1 chooses this "best" path.
A. In making its decision about the best path, RT-1 gives precedence to the origin code.
B. In making its decision about the best path, RT-1 gives precedence to the BGP MED values.
C. IP address 128.107.2.2 is lower than 128.107.255.2.
D. In making its decision about the best path, RT-1 prefers the IGP metrics.
E. RT-1 prefers internal BGP routes.
F. IP address 128.107.254.2 is lower than 128.107.255.2.
Answer: A

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